Category Archives: Exams

EXAM; HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following enzyme protein “cleans house” in the brain by removing nonstrengthened memories?

 

áCaMKII

 

protein phosphatase 1

 

á protein kinase M zeta

 

AMPA

 

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

When presynaptic neurons are active and postsynaptic neurons fire at the same time, ______.

 

one cancels the effects of the other

 

the synapse is strengthened

 

no neurotransmitter is released

 

the action potential is inhibited

 

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

Blocking receptors for this neurotransmitter shortly after learning has taken place impairs consolidation and memory.

 

serotonin

 

acetylcholine

 

dopamine

 

norepinephrine

 

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

According to projected estimates, the cost of caring for Alzheimer’s and other dementia patients in the U.S. will be ______.

 

$259 billion

 

$249 billion

 

$259 million

 

$249 million

 

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

All of the following are environmental risks when it comes to epigenetic changes linked to Alzheimer’s EXCEPT ______.

 

pesticides and fertilizers

 

vitamin D deficiency

 

herbicides and insecticides

 

secondhand smoke

 

IncorrectQuestion 6

0 / 2 pts

Why are laboratory models of Alzheimer’s finding difficulty replicating the disease completely?

 

Amyloid plaques can be produced, but not neurofibrillary tangles.

 

Neurofibrillary tangles can be produced, but not amyloid plaques.

 

Plaques and tangles can be produced, but not amyloid and tau.

 

Amyloid plaques can be produced, amyloid and tau.

 

IncorrectQuestion 7

0 / 2 pts

Which of the following is not one of the ways in which a memory remains stable yet malleable?

 

unlearning

 

forgetting

 

reconsolidation

 

extinction

 

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s disease is FALSE?

 

It is the 6th leading cause of death in the United States.

 

It can lead to behavioral problems, such as aggression.

 

The individual usually does not have trouble remembering what happened the day before.

 

The individual often repeats the same questions during a conversation.

 

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

Brain damage that is limited to hippocampal area CA1 results in ______.

 

moderate anterograde amnesia and profound retrograde amnesia

 

moderate anterograde amnesia and minimal retrograde amnesia

 

profound anterograde amnesia and profound retrograde amnesia

 

profound anterograde amnesia and minimal retrograde amnesia

 

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

Hippocampus is to brain as ______.

 

hard drive is to computer

 

display is to smart phone

 

RAM is to computer

 

SD card is to tablet

 

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

At which part(s) of the neuron do the clumps of beta amyloid cluster?

 

where signals are received

 

where signals are processed

 

where action potentials occur

 

where neurotransmitters are released

 

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

Your great uncle Ryan, at 70 years of age, is starting to show signs of memory problems. He has difficulty remembering where he left his wallet and keys and sometimes cannot recall the names of his grandkids. If you know he has a good diet and does not drink or smoke, what disorder can you definitively rule out?

 

Alzheimer’s disease

 

Parkinson’s disease

 

Huntington’s disease

 

Korsakoff’s syndrome

 

IncorrectQuestion 13

0 / 2 pts

Your grandmother unfortunately had a stroke over the weekend. You take her to the doctor, and the doctor says that despite some memory loss, her nondeclarative memory will be fine. With what form of memory will your grandmother likely NOT have any deficits?

 

picture memory

 

memory for facts

 

memory for skills

 

memory for events

 

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

Many of the genes implicated in ADHD code for which neurotransmitters?

 

dopamine, serotonin, and acetylcholine

 

dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine

 

serotonin, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine

 

norepinephrine, dopamine, and glutamate

 

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

A strain of mice engineered with a third copy of a critical chromosome 21 region produced ______.

 

less of two proteins that support neural survival

 

toxins that caused a buildup of neurofibrillary tangles

 

an abnormally high amount of dihydrotestosterone

 

symptoms that mimicked Korsakoff’s syndrome

 

Question 16

2 / 2 pts

In a memory task that activates the increased activity in the right prefrontal cortex in young adults, older adults who perform the same task just as well show activation in ______.

 

the right prefrontal cortex

 

the left prefrontal cortex

 

both the right and left prefrontal cortices

 

the right prefrontal cortex and left temporal lobe

 

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

Someone with ASD might think that other people can read minds, because they can correctly predict what someone else is about to do. This is because individuals with ASD lack a ______.

 

sense of self

 

theory of mind

 

hippocampus

 

amygdala

 

Question 18

2 / 2 pts

One possible explanation for the deficits in social, language, and emotional functioning among autistic individuals is ______.

 

overgrowth of frontal and temporal brain areas during development

 

lack of growth in frontal and temporal brain areas during development

 

overactivation of frontal and temporal brain areas during specific tasks

 

decreased gray matter volume in the prefrontal and temporal brain areas

 

Question 19

2 / 2 pts

Individuals with fragile X syndrome typically have an IQ below ______, while those with phenylketonuria show an IQ level of about ______.

 

50; 100

 

100; 50

 

20; 75

 

75; 20

 

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

IQ test scores were originally designed so that if an individual is about as intelligent as others of the same age, then the IQ score was ______.

 

0

 

1

 

50

 

100

 

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

If a team of researchers studied your brain because you scored abnormally high in intellectual g, what would they find?

 

a smaller brain

 

a brain with a larger parietal lobe

 

a brain that had an efficient network connecting frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes

 

a brain with larger sulci

 

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

When a person says, “I do not understand how people can communicate just by looking at each other. It’s as though they can read each other’s thoughts,” he/she shows evidence of ______.

 

echolalia

 

literalism in language communication

 

microcephaly

 

lack of theory of mind

 

Question 23

2 / 2 pts

If you were doing some basic arithmetic to figure out how much money to tip a server for good (15%) or excellent (20%) service in your head, what part of your brain would be most active?

 

both parietal lobes

 

left prefrontal cortex

 

insular cortex

 

anterior cingulate cortex

 

IncorrectQuestion 24

0 / 2 pts

Which of the following is TRUE regarding individuals with damage to their parietal lobes?

 

They can arrange numbers in rank order but cannot perform precise calculations.

 

They can estimate results but cannot perform precise calculations.

 

They can perform precise calculations but cannot arrange numbers in rank order.

 

They cannot estimate results or perform precise calculations.

 

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

Little Zoë still uses her fingers to count 2 + 3, while her older brother Zach automatically knows the answer is 5. Zoey is using her ______, and Zach is using his ______.

 

prefrontal lobe; parietal lobe

 

prefrontal lobe; frontal lobe

 

parietal lobe; parietal lobe

 

parietal areas; left frontal area

EXAM: ECOSYSTEM

  • Question 1

5 out of 5 points

The best way to reclaim an ecosystem that is extensively damaged is to ____.​
Selected Answer: e.

implement ecological restoration​

Correct Answer: e.

implement ecological restoration​

  • Question 2

0 out of 5 points

The loss of mayflies from a stream suggests that the quality of water is declining; therefore, mayflies are a(n) ____ species.​
Selected Answer: d.

​endangered

Correct Answer: e.

indicator​

  • Question 3

5 out of 5 points

​To a person studying utilization of cage space for lions in a zoo, the most useful data would be expressed by the number of ____.
Selected Answer: e.

​lions per square foot

Correct Answer: e.

​lions per square foot

  • Question 4

5 out of 5 points

Which element is a density-dependent factor that controls the size of a population?​
Selected Answer: a.

resource availability​

Correct Answer: a.

resource availability​

  • Question 5

5 out of 5 points

Sea lions can live into their thirties and produce no more than one pup per year. A sea lion is a(n) ____ species.​
Selected Answer: c.

​K-selected

Correct Answer: c.

​K-selected

  • Question 6

5 out of 5 points

An array of organisms together with their physical environment is referred to as a(n) ____.​
Selected Answer: b.

​ecosystem

Correct Answer: b.

​ecosystem

  • Question 7

0 out of 5 points

​Which item would be most attractive to a fire ant?
Selected Answer: c.

​a canvas patio umbrella

Correct Answer: e.

​an electric can opener

  • Question 8

0 out of 5 points

Secondary succession can occur ____.​
Selected Answer: b.

​on a glacier

Correct Answer: e.

​after a fire

  • Question 9

5 out of 5 points

​Variations in the timing of master gene expression during embryonic development in vertebrates is responsible for ____.
Selected Answer: d.

​differences in adult body form

Correct Answer: d.

​differences in adult body form

  • Question 10

5 out of 5 points

All vertebrate embryos have _____ at some point during embryonic development, indicating a common evolutionary ancestor.​
Selected Answer: b.

four limb buds, a tail, and somites​

Correct Answer: b.

four limb buds, a tail, and somites​

  • Question 11

0 out of 5 points

Typically, where would the oldest fossils be found?​
Selected Answer: a.

​on the ocean floor

Correct Answer: b.

​deep layer of the Earth

  • Question 12

5 out of 5 points

​Environmental pressures result in a(n) ____ of adaptive alleles.
Selected Answer: d.

​increase in the frequency

Correct Answer: d.

​increase in the frequency

  • Question 13

0 out of 5 points

​In the universal ABO blood grouping system, there are four phenotypes – A, B, AB, and O – which are determined by three different alleles. The presence of three alleles in the ABO blood grouping system is an example of ____.
Selected Answer: e.

​a dimorphism

Correct Answer: c.

​a polymorphism

  • Question 14

5 out of 5 points

​In Lake Victoria, hundreds of cichlid fish species arose after the lake last dried up 12,400 years ago. This is an example of ____.
Selected Answer: d.

​sympatric speciation

Correct Answer: d.

​sympatric speciation

  • Question 15

5 out of 5 points

A ____ secretes a chemical message for the purpose of cellular communication.​
Selected Answer: e.

​neuron

Correct Answer: e.

​neuron

  • Question 16

5 out of 5 points

Constriction of the pupil of the eye is caused by ____.​
Selected Answer: a.

​smooth muscle

Correct Answer: a.

​smooth muscle

  • Question 17

5 out of 5 points

Sensory information is received by the ____.​
Selected Answer: d.

​brain

Correct Answer: d.

​brain

  • Question 18

5 out of 5 points

​Stomata ____.
Selected Answer: d.

​allow the movement of gases into and out of plants

Correct Answer: d.

​allow the movement of gases into and out of plants

  • Question 19

5 out of 5 points

​What simple tissue composed of living cells is responsible for supporting rapidly growing plant parts such as young stems and leaf stalks?
Selected Answer: d.

​collenchyma tissue

Correct Answer: d.

​collenchyma tissue

  • Question 20

0 out of 5 points

​The tissue found in the center of a root is ____.
Selected Answer: a.

​pith

Correct Answer: b.

​xylem

 

Final Exam

Final Exam

 

 

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

___________ is the process in which individuals share thoughts, ideas, and feelings in understandable ways.

 

Public Speaking

 

 

Verbal Code

 

 

Communication

 

 

Informative Speech

 

 

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

___________ speeches promote understanding of an idea or convey a body of related facts.

 

Special Occasion

 

 

Introductory

 

 

Persuasive

 

 

Informative

 

 

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

This type of speech seeks to influence beliefs, choices, and opinions of the audience.

 

Introductory

 

 

Special Occasion

 

 

Persuasive

 

 

Informative

 

 

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

This form of group speech requires each group member to cover a topic during the speech or presentation. This type of group speech is most common.

 

Panel

 

 

Forum

 

 

Symposium

 

 

Oral Report

 

 

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

Problems commonly occur in this stage of the listening process because the listener places their own meaning to the speaker’s message. In this stage, listeners often avoid asking questions because they assume they understand the message.

 

Receive

 

 

Evaluate

 

 

Comprehend

 

 

Interpret

 

 

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

This is the most common form of anxiety and is caused by factors present in a specific speaking situation.

 

Situational Anxiety

 

 

General Anxiety

 

 

Performance anxiety

 

 

Trait anxiety

 

 

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

This term refers to internal anxieties an individual brings to a speaking situation.

 

General anxiety

 

 

Situational anxiety

 

 

Trait anxiety

 

 

Performance anxiety

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 8

0 / 2 pts

During a lecture, Kelsey notices that the class is making eye contact with her, nodding their heads, responding to discussion, and the students are receptive to the information. These audience members can be described as a __________ type of audience.

 

Engaged

 

 

Indifferent

 

 

Friendly

 

 

Neutral

 

 

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

Jake is presenting to his colleagues at a work meeting. Jake notices that his audience has a very short attention span. The audience is giving little feedback, and some of his audience members appear to be day dreaming. This audience can be referred to as _____________.

 

Neutral

 

 

Hostile

 

 

Distracted

 

 

Uninterested

 

 

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

Nancy is giving a presentation to her classmates on “How to be prepared for a job interview.” Nancy arranges the main points in a specific order of steps to follow from first to last. Which speech pattern is demonstrated?

 

Topical

 

 

Causal

 

 

Chronological

 

 

Spatial

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 11

0 / 2 pts

During Anthony’s  presentation he says, “Now that I have explained to you why should join a club on campus, I will share with you the types of clubs on campus.” This is an example of a(n) _________ used during a speech.

 

Attention Getter

 

 

Transition

 

 

Summary

 

 

Symposium

 

 

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following is true for the conclusion of a speech?

 

The speaker should state their credibility in the conclusion of the speech.

 

 

No new information should be shared in the conclusion.

 

 

A conclusion should be 40-50% of a speech.

 

 

There should be an attention grabber in the conclusion.

 

 

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following is not an example of how to analyze an audience?

 

Analyze your audience by psychological information

 

 

Analyze your audience by demographic information

 

 

Analyze your audience by research information

 

 

Analyze your audience by situational information

 

 

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

Caroline has prepared for her informative speech by making a brief set of speaker’s notes with keywords and phrases. She avoided writing out her speech word- for- word so that she can sound more conversational and maintain eye contact with the audience. Caroline is demonstrating which method of speech delivery?

 

Extemporaneous speaking

 

 

Speaking from manuscript

 

 

Impromptu

 

 

Speaking from memory

 

 

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

This part of the communication process can be described as the speaker putting the message into a form that the audience can understand.

 

Encoding

 

 

Stimulus

 

 

Decoding

 

 

Feedback

 

 

Question 16

2 / 2 pts

Educated Greeks and Romans studied ___________ which is the art of persuasive speaking.

 

Pathos

 

 

Ethics

 

 

Debates

 

 

Rhetoric

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 17

0 / 2 pts

This form of listening is described as an individual listening to understand and learn. One example would be listening during a class lecture.

 

Listening for entertainment

 

 

Listening to comprehend

 

 

Listening to learn

 

 

Listening for appreciation

 

 

Question 18

2 / 2 pts

This phenomenon occurs when the anxious speaker believes “All eyes are on me…”

 

General anxiety

 

 

Communication apprehension

 

 

Performance fear syndrome

 

 

Spotlight syndrome

 

 

Question 19

2 / 2 pts

T/F: Persuasion is offering information and letting the audience make up their own minds.

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

This type of audience a speaker’s greatest challenge.

 

Apathetic

 

 

Hostile

 

 

Bored

 

 

Uninterested

 

 

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

Food, air, and water are components of which stage of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

 

Social

 

 

Safety

 

 

Essential

 

 

Physiological

 

 

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

This type of speech is given to pay tribute to someone who has passed away.

 

Eulogy

 

 

Honorary Speech

 

 

Funeral Speech

 

 

Toast

 

 

Question 23

2 / 2 pts

This is a position that briefly goes against or opposes the main argument of a persuasive speech.

 

Debate

 

 

Counterargument

 

 

Pathos

 

 

Disposition

 

 

Question 24

2 / 2 pts

T/F: The main goal of a special occasion speech is bring up controversial topics.

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

Which form of speaker credibility refers to the speaker having a dynamic and enthusiastic delivery?

 

Objectivity

 

 

Dynamism

 

 

Friendly

 

 

Competency

 

 

Question 26

2 / 2 pts

This form of vocal variety can be described as “not the words you say, but how you say the words…”

 

Pitch

 

 

Tone

 

 

Rate

 

 

Attitude

 

 

Question 27

2 / 2 pts

A _________ is when no formal speech is given. The group informally discusses an issue in front of the audience.

 

Lecture

 

 

Toast

 

 

Forum

 

 

Panel

 

 

Question 28

2 / 2 pts

All of these examples of supporting materials require citations except which of the following?

 

Important facts

 

 

Statistics

 

 

Personal narratives

 

 

Quotations

 

 

Question 29

2 / 2 pts

________ are gestures that control the flow of communication in a small group or conversation.

 

Emblems

 

 

Adaptors

 

 

Illustrators

 

 

Regulators

 

 

Question 30

2 / 2 pts

__________ are types of special occasion speeches that formally recognizing and honor a person, organization, or occasion.

 

Commencement Address

 

 

Commemorative Speeches

 

 

Speech of Introduction

 

 

Acceptance Speeches

 

 

Question 31

2 / 2 pts

________ can be defined as the logic and evidence you present as a speaker. This is important to your appeal’s success.

 

Ethos

 

 

Logos

 

 

Pathos

 

 

Question 32

2 / 2 pts

There are four basic elements of credibility of a speaker. ________ refers to the speaker being open minded and presenting both sides of an argument.

 

Trustworthiness

 

 

Dynamism

 

 

Objectivity

 

 

Competency

 

 

Question 33

2 / 2 pts

Dawn is anxious on speech day because she did not practice. She avoids eye contact with the audience and fidgets with her speakers notes. These gestures that signal nervousness are referred to as ________.

 

Adaptors

 

 

Regulators

 

 

Illustrators

 

 

Emblems

 

 

Question 34

2 / 2 pts

It is important to use strong, forceful persuasive language for a persuasive speech. Which of the following is an example of forceful language?

 

All of the above

 

 

“Need”

 

“Should”

 

“Ought to”

 

Question 35

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following is the correct order, starting with the most important need to survive (from the bottom to top of the pyramid), of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

 

Physiological, safety, social, self-esteem, self-actualization

 

 

Safety, physiological, social, self-esteem, self-actualization

 

 

Safety, self-actualization, physiological, social, self-esteem

 

 

Physiological, self-actualization, social, safety, self-esteem

 

 

Question 36

2 / 2 pts

Rico is giving a persuasive speech on why one should volunteer at a local nursing home. He focuses on getting his audience emotionally involved by showing personal images of his experiences as a volunteer and telling heartwarming stories. Rico is effectively using ________ in his speech.

 

Logos

 

 

Ethos

 

 

Pathos

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 37

0 / 2 pts

Shelby notices that her professor avoids using his full pitch range during lectures and the professor often sounds expressionless. This can be referred to as ________.

 

Rate

 

 

Articulation

 

 

Monotone

 

 

Verbal Code

 

 

Question 38

2 / 2 pts

Speech to _________ seeks both agreement and action of the audience. The speaker urges audience members to continue to doing something, stop doing something, or never to begin doing something.

 

Stimulate or intensify social cohesion

 

 

Convince

 

 

Inform

 

 

Actuate

 

 

Question 39

2 / 2 pts

T/F: It is important to limit the colors and font choices on your visual aid. Too much clutter can lose the attention of your audience members and cause a distraction.

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

Question 40

2 / 2 pts

This pattern can be used for informative speeches when there is no relationship among the main points. Main points can be arranged by most to least important, familiar to unfamiliar, or however the speaker decides.

 

Topical

 

 

Organized

 

 

Spatial

 

 

Chronological

 

 

Question 41

2 / 2 pts

What are the three components of persuasion according to Aristotle?

 

Pathos, chronos, logos

 

 

Legos, ethos, pathos

 

 

Ethos, logos, pathos

 

 

Ethos, logos, chronos

 

 

Question 42

2 / 2 pts

When giving his informative speech, Gregg points to his charts and graphs to explain and clarify the different ideas and processes to the class. These actions are an example of _________.

 

Regulators

 

 

Adaptors

 

 

Illustrators

 

 

Emblems

 

 

Question 43

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following is not an example of a listening filter?

 

Age

 

 

Culture

 

 

Technology

 

 

Question 44

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following is not one of the four forms of vocal variety?

 

Rate

 

 

Appearance

 

 

Volume

 

 

Pitch

 

 

Question 45

2 / 2 pts

Martha is distracted during her 12:00 class because she has a midterm Math exam later that day. She can not concentrate on the current lecture in class because all she can focus on is worrying about the exam and studying. Martha is experiencing ________________.

 

Active Listening

 

 

External Noise

 

 

Internal Noise

 

 

Speaker Distractions

 

 

Question 46

2 / 2 pts

Individuals have their own ________________ which is made up of attitudes, beliefs, and values. This term influences how individuals interpret messages.

 

World View

 

 

Moral Code

 

 

Frame of Reference

 

 

Life Goals

 

 

Question 47

2 / 2 pts

A student who is taking notes in class, gives nonverbal and verbal feedback, and aims to comprehend the message can be considered a(n) _______________.

 

Encoder

 

 

Active Listener

 

 

Passive Listener

 

 

Extemporaneous Listener

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 48

0 / 2 pts

In 2016, President Obama visited Hiroshima to speak at an event to memorialize 71st anniversary of the Hiroshima bombing. He also took part in the wreath-laying ceremony at the Hiroshima Peace Memorial. This event is an example a _______________.

 

Acceptance Speech

 

 

Travel Spectacle

 

 

Speech of Introduction

 

 

Political Spectacle

 

 

Question 49

2 / 2 pts

Words and phrases such as “um,” “uhhh,” “you know,” and “like” are examples of ______________. These are to be avoided in professional presentations.

 

Vocal Pauses

 

 

Transitions

 

 

Vocal Fillers

 

 

Gap Words

 

 

Question 50

2 / 2 pts

This theorists wrote The Rhetorical Situation in 1968 to propose a relationship between rhetoric and situations.

 

Lloyd Bitzer

 

 

Aristotle

 

 

Cicero

 

 

Kenneth Burke

 

Serial Season 3, Episodes 1-2

45 points

  1. The defense attorney says, “innocence is a misdemeanor.” How does Russ describe this phrase? Do you think this is accurate or inaccurate, based on your current understanding of the criminal justice system?
  2. Describe what happened in Anna’s case in an unbiased, neutral way.
  3. What were two positives and two negatives of how you think Anna’s case was handled, from the incident to the conclusion?
  4. What are the factors that Russ is weighing when deciding whether or not to try Anna’s case?
  5. What was the outcome in Anna’s case? Do you agree with the outcome? Explain your answer.
  6. Based on the probation requirements set forth by both judges featured in Episode 2, do you think it would be easier to serve jail time or follow the strict probation requirements for multiple years? Explain your answer based on your current life situation.
  7. How did Judge Gaul get his position on the bench? What is his “style” as a judge? What are your thoughts about his methods of handling cases?
  8. A lot of controversial actions and behaviors were brought up in Episode 2. What was the one thing you were most surprised by and why?

Review Test Submission: Midterm _2022_Spring

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  • Question 1

 

 

The following data relates to the Washington Co.:  
   
Direct Materials Inventory, Beginning $300
Direct Materials Inventory, Ending $250
Direct Materials Purchases $2,100
Direct Labor $1,300
Manufacturing Overhead $1,100
Work-in-Process Inventory, Beginning $850
Work-in-Process Inventory, Ending $900
Finished Goods Inventory, Beginning $1,250
Finished Goods Inventory, Ending $1,300
   
Sales Revenue $10,500
Selling and Administrative Expenses $1,800
   
Income Tax Rate 20%
   
Required:  
a. Prepare a Statement of Cost of Goods Manufactured.  
b. Prepare an Income Statement.  
Selected Answer: a)

Direct Material Inventory , beginning 300  
Add Direct material purchases 2100  
Less Direct material inventory , ending 250  
Direct Material used   2150
Direct labor   1300
Factory overhead   1100
Work in progress inventory, beginning 850  
Less Work in progress inventory, ending 900  
Work in progress   -50
Cost of goods manufactured   4500

 

b)

Cost of good manufactured   4500
Finished goods inventory , beginning 1250  
Less : Finished goods inevntory , ending 1300 -50
Cost of good sold   4450
     
Income statement    
Sale revenue   10500
Less cost of goods sold   4500
Gross profit   6000
Less sellind and administrative expenses   1800
Net profit   4200
Less Income tax @ 20%   850
Net profit after tax   3350
Correct Answer:  

 

a. Cost of Goods Manufactured    
     
Direct Materials, Beginning $300  
Materials Purchased $2,100  
Less: Direct Materials, Ending $250  
Direct Materials (Used in Production) $2,150  
Direct Labor $1,300  
Manufacturing Overhead $1,100  
Total Manufacturing Costs $4,550  
Work in Process Inventory, Beginning $850  
Less: Work in Process Inventory, Ending $900  
Cost of Goods Manufactured $4,500  
     
b) Income statement    
     
Sales   $10,500
Cost of Goods Manufactured $4,500  
Finished Goods Inventory, Beginning $1,250  
Less: Finished Goods Inventory, Ending $1,300  
Costs of Goods Sold   $4,450
Gross Profit Margin   $6,050
Less: Selling Administrative Expense   $1,800
Operating Income (pre-tax)   $4,250
Less: Income Tax (20%)   $850
Net Income (after tax)   $3,400
Response Feedback: [None Given]
  • Question 2

23 out of 25 points

 

 

Toronto Co. plans to produce and sell security cameras.  
The projected data for producing a security camera are as follows:  
   
Budgeted sales per year (in units) 1,500
Selling price $150
Variable costs $90
Total fixd costs $60,000
Income tax rate 20%
Desired annual profit after tax $72,000
   
Required:  
a) How many security camera would it have to sell in order to break even?
b) How many sales revenue would it have in order to break even?
c) To earn deired after-tax profit, how many security camera would it have to sell?
d) Calculate margin of safety ratio (MOSR) with the budgeted sales volume.
e) Calculate degree of operating leverage (DOL) with budgeted sales volume.
Selected Answer: a) Break even cameras = Fixed cost/ contribution margin

contributon margin = selling price – variable costs

= $150 – $90 = $60

break-even cameras = $60000/$60

= 1000

b) Break – even sales revenue = 1000*$150

= $150000

c) Net income before tax = 72000+(72000*0.2)

= $86400

Number of security cameras = 86400/60

= 1440

d)Margin of safety in units = Actual sales units – Break even sales in units

= 1500-1000

= 500

e) Contribution margin = 1500*60

= $90000

Net income = $90000-$60000

= $30000

DOL = $90000/$30000

= 3.00

Correct Answer:  

 

a) BEP (in units) 1,000
b) BEP (in Sales $) $150,000
c) Q with desired after-tax profit 2,500
d) MOSR w/ budgeted volume 0.333
fe DOL w/ budgeted volume 3.00
   
Revenue $225,000
Less: Total Variable Costs $135,000
Total Contribution Margin $90,000
Less: Fixed Costs $60,000
Operating Income $30,000
Response Feedback: [None Given]
  • Question 3

25 out of 25 points

The Western Co. established the following overhead cost pools and cost drivers:

 

  Budgeted   Estimated Cost    
Overhead Cost Pool Overhead Cost Driver Driver Level    
Assembly $1,400,000 # of labor hrs 40,000 labor hrs  
Setups $900,000 # of setups 30,000 setups  
Machine operating costs $700,000 # of machine hrs 50,000 machine hrs  
Total overhead costs $3,000,000        
           
A recent order for sailboats used:        
Assembly 4,000 labor hrs      
Setups 200 setups      
Machine hours (MHs) 2,500 machine hours      

 

Required:

a) What is the overhead rate per machine hour if the number of machine hours (MHs)  is used as a single cost driver under traditional costing system?

b) Utilizing traditional costing, how much overhead is assigned to the order based on machine hours as a single cost driver?

c) Utilizing activity-based costing, how much overhead is assigned to the order?

d) Explain the reasons why the overhead costs computed under two systems are different.

Selected Answer: a) overhead rate for every machine hour

= Total cost/Total machine hour

=$3,000,000/50,000

=$60 per machine hour

 

b) OH cost assigned = OH rate per machine hour*Machine hours by order

=$60*2,500

=$150,000

 

c)

Activity Cost Driver Rate per activity
Assembly $1,400,000 40,000 $35 / labor hour
Setups $900,000 30,000 $30 / set up
Machine Operating Cost $700,000 50,000 $14/ Machine hour
       
Cost per activity Cost driver used OH allocated  
$35 per labor hour 4,000 $140,000  
$30 per set up 200 $6,000  
$14 per Machine hour 2,500 $35,000  
Total OH assigned   $181,000  

 

d) A job costs more or less depending on how many machine hours, labor hours, set up, and machine hours are used. This is because the job’s ABC is different.

Single OH rate has used machine hour to figure out how much it costs. ABC costing has used labor hour, setups, and machine hour to figure out how much it costs.

Correct Answer:  

a) $3,000,000/50,000=$60 per MH

b) $60*2,500=$150,000

c) $35*4,000+$30*200+$14*2,500=$181,000.

d)

Response Feedback: [None Given]
  • Question 4

5 out of 5 points

Why do most companies adhere to GAAP for their basic internal financial statements?
Selected Answer:  

Accrual accounting provides a uniform method to measure an organization’s financial performance.

Answers: GAAP is required by law for publicly held companies.
To use GAAP and another system of reporting would be too costly for most companies.
Accountants are required by their code of ethics to use GAAP accounting.
 

Accrual accounting provides a uniform method to measure an organization’s financial performance.

  • Question 5

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following accounts is not classified as an asset?
Selected Answer:  

Manufacturing Overhead Control

Answers:  

Manufacturing Overhead Control

Materials Control
Work-in-Process Control
Finished Goods Control
  • Question 6

5 out of 5 points

In refining a cost system
Selected Answer:  

the criterion of cause-and-effect is used to relate indirect costs to a factor that systematically links to a cost object.

Answers: total direct costs are unchanged because they can be traced in an economically feasible way to the product and traced costs are more accurate.
the costs are grouped in homogeneous pools of the same or similar amounts.
 

the criterion of cause-and-effect is used to relate indirect costs to a factor that systematically links to a cost object.

the organization looks for cost-allocation bases that will provide a uniform spreading of indirect costs to each product.

 

  • Question 7

5 out of 5 points

Evaluating customer reaction of the trade-off of giving up some features of a product for a lower price would best fit which category of management decisions under activity-based management?
Selected Answer:  

Design decisions

Answers: Pricing and product-mix decisions
Cost reduction decisions
 

Design decisions

Discretionary decisions
  • Question 8

5 out of 5 points

Advertising of a specific product is an example of
Selected Answer:  

product-sustaining costs.

Answers: unit-level costs.
batch-level costs.
 

product-sustaining costs.

facility-sustaining costs.
  • Question 9

0 out of 5 points

A significant limitation of activity-based costing is the
Selected Answer:  

many necessary calculations.

Answers: attention given to indirect cost allocation.
many necessary calculations.
 

operations staff’s attitude toward the accounting staff.

use it makes of technology.
  • Question 10

5 out of 5 points

The value chain
Selected Answer:  

is the sequence of business functions in which customer usefulness is added to products or services.

Answers: involves external companies as well as internal activities.
 

is the sequence of business functions in which customer usefulness is added to products or services.

applies only to manufacturing companies.
is not relevant in today’s cost accounting environment.
  • Question 11

5 out of 5 points

One way for managers to cope with uncertainty in profit planning is to
Selected Answer:  

use sensitivity analysis to explore various what-if scenarios in order to analyze changes in revenues or costs or quantities.

Answers: use CVP analysis because it assumes certainty.
recommend management hire a futurist whose work is to predict business trends.
wait to see what does happen and prepare a report based on actual amounts.
 

use sensitivity analysis to explore various what-if scenarios in order to analyze changes in revenues or costs or quantities.

  • Question 12

5 out of 5 points

Production-cost cross-subsidization results from
Selected Answer:  

assigning broadly averaged costs across multiple products without recognizing amounts of resources used by which products.

Answers: allocating indirect costs to multiple products.
assigning traced costs to each product.
assigning costs to different products using varied costing systems within the same organization.
 

assigning broadly averaged costs across multiple products without recognizing amounts of resources used by which products.

  • Question 13

5 out of 5 points

The first step in the seven-step approach to job costing is to
Selected Answer:  

identify the job that is the chosen cost object.

Answers: select the cost-allocation base to use in assigning indirect costs to the job.
identify the direct costs of the job.
 

identify the job that is the chosen cost object.

identify the indirect-cost pools associated with the job.
  • Question 14

5 out of 5 points

_____ management exists to provide advice and assistance to those responsible for attaining the objectives of the organization.
Selected Answer:  

Staff

Answers: Line
Functional
 

Staff

Risk
  • Question 15

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following is not a key success factor in a company’s effort to deliver increased levels of performance to the customer?
Selected Answer:  

Price reduction

Answers: Time
Innovation
Quality
 

Price reduction

  • Question 16

5 out of 5 points

Finished goods inventory would normally include ________.
Selected Answer:  

goods fully completed but not yet sold

Answers: direct materials in stock and awaiting use in the manufacturing process
goods returned after being sold to be re-worked on further improvements and quality
 

goods fully completed but not yet sold

goods partially worked on but not yet fully completed
  • Question 17

5 out of 5 points

A manufacturing plant produces two product lines: golf equipment and soccer equipment. An example of direct costs for the golf equipment line is ________.
Selected Answer:  

monthly lease payments for a specialized piece of equipment needed to manufacture the golf driver

Answers: salaries of the clerical staff that work in the company administrative offices
 

monthly lease payments for a specialized piece of equipment needed to manufacture the golf driver

beverages provided daily in the plant break room
overheads incurred in producing both golf and soccer equipment
  • Question 18

5 out of 5 points

Service-sector companies ________.
Selected Answer:  

provide intangible products

Answers: purchase and then sell tangible products by changing their basic form
purchase materials and components and convert them into finished goods
purchase and then sell tangible products without changing their basic form
 

provide intangible products

  • Question 19

5 out of 5 points

An actual cost is ________.
Selected Answer:  

is the cost incurred

Answers: is a predicted or forecasted cost
 

is the cost incurred

is anything for which a cost measurement is desired
is the collection of cost data in some organized way by means of an accounting system
  • Question 20

0 out of 5 points

Direct materials inventory would normally include ________.
Selected Answer:  

goods fully completed but not yet sold

Answers: goods partially worked on but not yet fully completed
 

direct materials in stock and awaiting use in the manufacturing process

products in their original form intended to be sold without changing their basic form
goods fully completed but not yet sold
  • Question 21

5 out of 5 points

A job that shows low profitability may be the result of ________.
Selected Answer:  

inefficient direct manufacturing labor

Answers: excessive usage of direct materials
 

inefficient direct manufacturing labor

insurance claim of the damaged goods
overpricing the job
  • Question 22

5 out of 5 points

The budgeted direct-labor cost rate includes ________.
Selected Answer:  

budgeted total direct-labor costs in the numerator

Answers: budgeted total direct-labor hours in the numerator
budgeted total costs in indirect cost pool
 

budgeted total direct-labor costs in the numerator

budgeted total direct-labor costs in the denominator
  • Question 23

5 out of 5 points

In the service sector, to achieve timely reporting on the profitability of an engagement, a company will use ________.
Selected Answer:  

budgeted rates for some direct costs and indirect costs

Answers: budgeted rates for all direct costs
actual costing
 

budgeted rates for some direct costs and indirect costs

budgeted rates for indirect costs
  • Question 24

5 out of 5 points

The cost allocation base ________.
Selected Answer:  

is a systematic way to link an indirect cost or group of indirect costs to cost objects

Answers:  

is a systematic way to link an indirect cost or group of indirect costs to cost objects

are costs related to a particular cost object that cannot be traced to that cost object in an economically feasible way
is anything for which a measurement of costs is desired
is a grouping of individual indirect cost items
  • Question 25

5 out of 5 points

________ is used to record and accumulate all the costs assigned to a specific job.
Selected Answer:  

Job-cost record

Answers: Cost-allocation base
Labor-requisition record
 

Job-cost record

Materials-requisition record
  • Question 26

5 out of 5 points

Facility-sustaining costs are the costs of activities ________.
Selected Answer:  

that managers cannot trace to individual products or services but that support the organization as a whole

Answers: performed on each individual unit of a product or service such as the cost of energy, machine depreciation, and repair
 

that managers cannot trace to individual products or services but that support the organization as a whole

related to a group of units of a product or service rather than each individual unit of product or service
undertaken to support individual products or services regardless of the number of units or batches in which the units are produced
  • Question 27

5 out of 5 points

For a company with diverse products, undercosting overhead of a product will lead to ________.
Selected Answer:  

misallocating indirect costs of another product

Answers:  

misallocating indirect costs of another product

misallocating direct costs of another product
misallocating direct labor costs of the product.
misallocating direct material costs of the product
  • Question 28

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following cost and cost allocation base have a strong cause and effect relationship?
Selected Answer:  

machine depreciation and output units

Answers: machine maintenance and setup hours
 

machine depreciation and output units

administration costs and cubic feet
setup costs and square feet
  • Question 29

5 out of 5 points

The goal of a properly constructed ABC system is to ________.
Selected Answer:  

develop the best cost system for an economically reasonable cost

Answers:  

develop the best cost system for an economically reasonable cost

identify more indirect costs
have separate allocation rates for each department
have the most accurate cost system
  • Question 30

5 out of 5 points

________ aims to improve operations throughout the value chain and to deliver products
and services that exceed customer expectations.
Selected Answer:  

Total Quality Management

Answers: Cost and efficiency
Customer response time
 

Total Quality Management

Innovation
  • Question 31

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following is true of sustainability?
Selected Answer:  

It helps the development and implementation of strategies to achieve long-term financial, social, and environmental goals.

Answers: It concerns with purchase of material in larger quantities.
It helps manufacturing firms produce products more efficiently ensuring lower costs at an optimum use of available resources.
It helps in implementing strategies to improvise the product.
 

It helps the development and implementation of strategies to achieve long-term financial, social, and environmental goals.

  • Question 32

5 out of 5 points

The Institute of Management Accountants issues which certification?
Selected Answer:  

CMA

Answers: CPA
CIA
CFE
 

CMA

  • Question 33

5 out of 5 points

A report showing the actual financial results for a period compared to the budgeted financial results for that same period would most likely be called a ________.
Selected Answer:  

performance report

Answers: management forecast
strategic plan
revised plan
 

performance report

  • Question 34

5 out of 5 points

Management accounting is considered most likely to be successful when it ________.
Selected Answer:  

is timely

Answers: helps creditors evaluate the company’s performance
is relevant and reported annually
helps investors improve their decisions
 

is timely

  • Question 35

5 out of 5 points

Stones Manufacturing, sells a marble slab for $1000. Fixed costs are $35,000, while the variable costs are $450 per slab. The company currently plans to sell 230 slabs this month. What is the margin of safety assuming 85 slabs are budgeted?
Selected Answer:  

$21,363.6364

Answers: $166,363.636
$62,863.6364
$35,000
 

$21,363.6364

 

Response Feedback: Breakeven in number of slabs = $35,000 / ($1000 − $450) = 64 slabs
  • Question 36

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following is true about the assumptions underlying basic CVP analysis?
Selected Answer:  

Only selling price, variable cost per unit, and total fixed costs are known and constant.

Answers:  

Only selling price, variable cost per unit, and total fixed costs are known and constant.

Only selling price and variable cost per unit are known and constant.
Selling price varies with demand and supply of the product.
Selling price, variable cost per unit, fixed cost per unit, and total fixed costs are known and constant.
  • Question 37

5 out of 5 points

As per CVP, operating income calculations use ________.
Selected Answer:  

contribution margins and fixed costs

Answers:  

contribution margins and fixed costs

nonoperating revenues and nonoperating expenses
income tax expense and net income
net income and dividends
  • Question 38

5 out of 5 points

At the breakeven point of 3000 units, variable costs total $4000and fixed costs total $10,000. The 3001st unit sold will contribute ________ to profits.
Selected Answer:  

$3.33

Answers: $2.00
$1.33
 

$3.33

$4.67

 

Response Feedback: Fixed costs of $10,000/3000 units = Contribution Margin of $3.33 per unit.
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  • Question 1

 

 

The following data relates to the Washington Co.:  
   
Direct Materials Inventory, Beginning $300
Direct Materials Inventory, Ending $250
Direct Materials Purchases $2,100
Direct Labor $1,300
Manufacturing Overhead $1,100
Work-in-Process Inventory, Beginning $850
Work-in-Process Inventory, Ending $900
Finished Goods Inventory, Beginning $1,250
Finished Goods Inventory, Ending $1,300
   
Sales Revenue $10,500
Selling and Administrative Expenses $1,800
   
Income Tax Rate 20%
   
Required:  
a. Prepare a Statement of Cost of Goods Manufactured.  
b. Prepare an Income Statement.  
Selected Answer: a)

Direct Material Inventory , beginning 300  
Add Direct material purchases 2100  
Less Direct material inventory , ending 250  
Direct Material used   2150
Direct labor   1300
Factory overhead   1100
Work in progress inventory, beginning 850  
Less Work in progress inventory, ending 900  
Work in progress   -50
Cost of goods manufactured   4500

 

b)

Cost of good manufactured   4500
Finished goods inventory , beginning 1250  
Less : Finished goods inevntory , ending 1300 -50
Cost of good sold   4450
     
Income statement    
Sale revenue   10500
Less cost of goods sold   4500
Gross profit   6000
Less sellind and administrative expenses   1800
Net profit   4200
Less Income tax @ 20%   850
Net profit after tax   3350
Correct Answer:  

 

a. Cost of Goods Manufactured    
     
Direct Materials, Beginning $300  
Materials Purchased $2,100  
Less: Direct Materials, Ending $250  
Direct Materials (Used in Production) $2,150  
Direct Labor $1,300  
Manufacturing Overhead $1,100  
Total Manufacturing Costs $4,550  
Work in Process Inventory, Beginning $850  
Less: Work in Process Inventory, Ending $900  
Cost of Goods Manufactured $4,500  
     
b) Income statement    
     
Sales   $10,500
Cost of Goods Manufactured $4,500  
Finished Goods Inventory, Beginning $1,250  
Less: Finished Goods Inventory, Ending $1,300  
Costs of Goods Sold   $4,450
Gross Profit Margin   $6,050
Less: Selling Administrative Expense   $1,800
Operating Income (pre-tax)   $4,250
Less: Income Tax (20%)   $850
Net Income (after tax)   $3,400
Response Feedback: [None Given]
  • Question 2

23 out of 25 points

 

 

Toronto Co. plans to produce and sell security cameras.  
The projected data for producing a security camera are as follows:  
   
Budgeted sales per year (in units) 1,500
Selling price $150
Variable costs $90
Total fixd costs $60,000
Income tax rate 20%
Desired annual profit after tax $72,000
   
Required:  
a) How many security camera would it have to sell in order to break even?
b) How many sales revenue would it have in order to break even?
c) To earn deired after-tax profit, how many security camera would it have to sell?
d) Calculate margin of safety ratio (MOSR) with the budgeted sales volume.
e) Calculate degree of operating leverage (DOL) with budgeted sales volume.
Selected Answer: a) Break even cameras = Fixed cost/ contribution margin

contributon margin = selling price – variable costs

= $150 – $90 = $60

break-even cameras = $60000/$60

= 1000

b) Break – even sales revenue = 1000*$150

= $150000

c) Net income before tax = 72000+(72000*0.2)

= $86400

Number of security cameras = 86400/60

= 1440

d)Margin of safety in units = Actual sales units – Break even sales in units

= 1500-1000

= 500

e) Contribution margin = 1500*60

= $90000

Net income = $90000-$60000

= $30000

DOL = $90000/$30000

= 3.00

Correct Answer:  

 

a) BEP (in units) 1,000
b) BEP (in Sales $) $150,000
c) Q with desired after-tax profit 2,500
d) MOSR w/ budgeted volume 0.333
fe DOL w/ budgeted volume 3.00
   
Revenue $225,000
Less: Total Variable Costs $135,000
Total Contribution Margin $90,000
Less: Fixed Costs $60,000
Operating Income $30,000
Response Feedback: [None Given]
  • Question 3

25 out of 25 points

The Western Co. established the following overhead cost pools and cost drivers:

 

  Budgeted   Estimated Cost    
Overhead Cost Pool Overhead Cost Driver Driver Level    
Assembly $1,400,000 # of labor hrs 40,000 labor hrs  
Setups $900,000 # of setups 30,000 setups  
Machine operating costs $700,000 # of machine hrs 50,000 machine hrs  
Total overhead costs $3,000,000        
           
A recent order for sailboats used:        
Assembly 4,000 labor hrs      
Setups 200 setups      
Machine hours (MHs) 2,500 machine hours      

 

Required:

a) What is the overhead rate per machine hour if the number of machine hours (MHs)  is used as a single cost driver under traditional costing system?

b) Utilizing traditional costing, how much overhead is assigned to the order based on machine hours as a single cost driver?

c) Utilizing activity-based costing, how much overhead is assigned to the order?

d) Explain the reasons why the overhead costs computed under two systems are different.

Selected Answer: a) overhead rate for every machine hour

= Total cost/Total machine hour

=$3,000,000/50,000

=$60 per machine hour

 

b) OH cost assigned = OH rate per machine hour*Machine hours by order

=$60*2,500

=$150,000

 

c)

Activity Cost Driver Rate per activity
Assembly $1,400,000 40,000 $35 / labor hour
Setups $900,000 30,000 $30 / set up
Machine Operating Cost $700,000 50,000 $14/ Machine hour
       
Cost per activity Cost driver used OH allocated  
$35 per labor hour 4,000 $140,000  
$30 per set up 200 $6,000  
$14 per Machine hour 2,500 $35,000  
Total OH assigned   $181,000  

 

d) A job costs more or less depending on how many machine hours, labor hours, set up, and machine hours are used. This is because the job’s ABC is different.

Single OH rate has used machine hour to figure out how much it costs. ABC costing has used labor hour, setups, and machine hour to figure out how much it costs.

Correct Answer:  

a) $3,000,000/50,000=$60 per MH

b) $60*2,500=$150,000

c) $35*4,000+$30*200+$14*2,500=$181,000.

d)

Response Feedback: [None Given]
  • Question 4

5 out of 5 points

Why do most companies adhere to GAAP for their basic internal financial statements?
Selected Answer:  

Accrual accounting provides a uniform method to measure an organization’s financial performance.

Answers: GAAP is required by law for publicly held companies.
To use GAAP and another system of reporting would be too costly for most companies.
Accountants are required by their code of ethics to use GAAP accounting.
 

Accrual accounting provides a uniform method to measure an organization’s financial performance.

  • Question 5

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following accounts is not classified as an asset?
Selected Answer:  

Manufacturing Overhead Control

Answers:  

Manufacturing Overhead Control

Materials Control
Work-in-Process Control
Finished Goods Control
  • Question 6

5 out of 5 points

In refining a cost system
Selected Answer:  

the criterion of cause-and-effect is used to relate indirect costs to a factor that systematically links to a cost object.

Answers: total direct costs are unchanged because they can be traced in an economically feasible way to the product and traced costs are more accurate.
the costs are grouped in homogeneous pools of the same or similar amounts.
 

the criterion of cause-and-effect is used to relate indirect costs to a factor that systematically links to a cost object.

the organization looks for cost-allocation bases that will provide a uniform spreading of indirect costs to each product.

 

  • Question 7

5 out of 5 points

Evaluating customer reaction of the trade-off of giving up some features of a product for a lower price would best fit which category of management decisions under activity-based management?
Selected Answer:  

Design decisions

Answers: Pricing and product-mix decisions
Cost reduction decisions
 

Design decisions

Discretionary decisions
  • Question 8

5 out of 5 points

Advertising of a specific product is an example of
Selected Answer:  

product-sustaining costs.

Answers: unit-level costs.
batch-level costs.
 

product-sustaining costs.

facility-sustaining costs.
  • Question 9

0 out of 5 points

A significant limitation of activity-based costing is the
Selected Answer:  

many necessary calculations.

Answers: attention given to indirect cost allocation.
many necessary calculations.
 

operations staff’s attitude toward the accounting staff.

use it makes of technology.
  • Question 10

5 out of 5 points

The value chain
Selected Answer:  

is the sequence of business functions in which customer usefulness is added to products or services.

Answers: involves external companies as well as internal activities.
 

is the sequence of business functions in which customer usefulness is added to products or services.

applies only to manufacturing companies.
is not relevant in today’s cost accounting environment.
  • Question 11

5 out of 5 points

One way for managers to cope with uncertainty in profit planning is to
Selected Answer:  

use sensitivity analysis to explore various what-if scenarios in order to analyze changes in revenues or costs or quantities.

Answers: use CVP analysis because it assumes certainty.
recommend management hire a futurist whose work is to predict business trends.
wait to see what does happen and prepare a report based on actual amounts.
 

use sensitivity analysis to explore various what-if scenarios in order to analyze changes in revenues or costs or quantities.

  • Question 12

5 out of 5 points

Production-cost cross-subsidization results from
Selected Answer:  

assigning broadly averaged costs across multiple products without recognizing amounts of resources used by which products.

Answers: allocating indirect costs to multiple products.
assigning traced costs to each product.
assigning costs to different products using varied costing systems within the same organization.
 

assigning broadly averaged costs across multiple products without recognizing amounts of resources used by which products.

  • Question 13

5 out of 5 points

The first step in the seven-step approach to job costing is to
Selected Answer:  

identify the job that is the chosen cost object.

Answers: select the cost-allocation base to use in assigning indirect costs to the job.
identify the direct costs of the job.
 

identify the job that is the chosen cost object.

identify the indirect-cost pools associated with the job.
  • Question 14

5 out of 5 points

_____ management exists to provide advice and assistance to those responsible for attaining the objectives of the organization.
Selected Answer:  

Staff

Answers: Line
Functional
 

Staff

Risk
  • Question 15

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following is not a key success factor in a company’s effort to deliver increased levels of performance to the customer?
Selected Answer:  

Price reduction

Answers: Time
Innovation
Quality
 

Price reduction

  • Question 16

5 out of 5 points

Finished goods inventory would normally include ________.
Selected Answer:  

goods fully completed but not yet sold

Answers: direct materials in stock and awaiting use in the manufacturing process
goods returned after being sold to be re-worked on further improvements and quality
 

goods fully completed but not yet sold

goods partially worked on but not yet fully completed
  • Question 17

5 out of 5 points

A manufacturing plant produces two product lines: golf equipment and soccer equipment. An example of direct costs for the golf equipment line is ________.
Selected Answer:  

monthly lease payments for a specialized piece of equipment needed to manufacture the golf driver

Answers: salaries of the clerical staff that work in the company administrative offices
 

monthly lease payments for a specialized piece of equipment needed to manufacture the golf driver

beverages provided daily in the plant break room
overheads incurred in producing both golf and soccer equipment
  • Question 18

5 out of 5 points

Service-sector companies ________.
Selected Answer:  

provide intangible products

Answers: purchase and then sell tangible products by changing their basic form
purchase materials and components and convert them into finished goods
purchase and then sell tangible products without changing their basic form
 

provide intangible products

  • Question 19

5 out of 5 points

An actual cost is ________.
Selected Answer:  

is the cost incurred

Answers: is a predicted or forecasted cost
 

is the cost incurred

is anything for which a cost measurement is desired
is the collection of cost data in some organized way by means of an accounting system
  • Question 20

0 out of 5 points

Direct materials inventory would normally include ________.
Selected Answer:  

goods fully completed but not yet sold

Answers: goods partially worked on but not yet fully completed
 

direct materials in stock and awaiting use in the manufacturing process

products in their original form intended to be sold without changing their basic form
goods fully completed but not yet sold
  • Question 21

5 out of 5 points

A job that shows low profitability may be the result of ________.
Selected Answer:  

inefficient direct manufacturing labor

Answers: excessive usage of direct materials
 

inefficient direct manufacturing labor

insurance claim of the damaged goods
overpricing the job
  • Question 22

5 out of 5 points

The budgeted direct-labor cost rate includes ________.
Selected Answer:  

budgeted total direct-labor costs in the numerator

Answers: budgeted total direct-labor hours in the numerator
budgeted total costs in indirect cost pool
 

budgeted total direct-labor costs in the numerator

budgeted total direct-labor costs in the denominator
  • Question 23

5 out of 5 points

In the service sector, to achieve timely reporting on the profitability of an engagement, a company will use ________.
Selected Answer:  

budgeted rates for some direct costs and indirect costs

Answers: budgeted rates for all direct costs
actual costing
 

budgeted rates for some direct costs and indirect costs

budgeted rates for indirect costs
  • Question 24

5 out of 5 points

The cost allocation base ________.
Selected Answer:  

is a systematic way to link an indirect cost or group of indirect costs to cost objects

Answers:  

is a systematic way to link an indirect cost or group of indirect costs to cost objects

are costs related to a particular cost object that cannot be traced to that cost object in an economically feasible way
is anything for which a measurement of costs is desired
is a grouping of individual indirect cost items
  • Question 25

5 out of 5 points

________ is used to record and accumulate all the costs assigned to a specific job.
Selected Answer:  

Job-cost record

Answers: Cost-allocation base
Labor-requisition record
 

Job-cost record

Materials-requisition record
  • Question 26

5 out of 5 points

Facility-sustaining costs are the costs of activities ________.
Selected Answer:  

that managers cannot trace to individual products or services but that support the organization as a whole

Answers: performed on each individual unit of a product or service such as the cost of energy, machine depreciation, and repair
 

that managers cannot trace to individual products or services but that support the organization as a whole

related to a group of units of a product or service rather than each individual unit of product or service
undertaken to support individual products or services regardless of the number of units or batches in which the units are produced
  • Question 27

5 out of 5 points

For a company with diverse products, undercosting overhead of a product will lead to ________.
Selected Answer:  

misallocating indirect costs of another product

Answers:  

misallocating indirect costs of another product

misallocating direct costs of another product
misallocating direct labor costs of the product.
misallocating direct material costs of the product
  • Question 28

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following cost and cost allocation base have a strong cause and effect relationship?
Selected Answer:  

machine depreciation and output units

Answers: machine maintenance and setup hours
 

machine depreciation and output units

administration costs and cubic feet
setup costs and square feet
  • Question 29

5 out of 5 points

The goal of a properly constructed ABC system is to ________.
Selected Answer:  

develop the best cost system for an economically reasonable cost

Answers:  

develop the best cost system for an economically reasonable cost

identify more indirect costs
have separate allocation rates for each department
have the most accurate cost system
  • Question 30

5 out of 5 points

________ aims to improve operations throughout the value chain and to deliver products
and services that exceed customer expectations.
Selected Answer:  

Total Quality Management

Answers: Cost and efficiency
Customer response time
 

Total Quality Management

Innovation
  • Question 31

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following is true of sustainability?
Selected Answer:  

It helps the development and implementation of strategies to achieve long-term financial, social, and environmental goals.

Answers: It concerns with purchase of material in larger quantities.
It helps manufacturing firms produce products more efficiently ensuring lower costs at an optimum use of available resources.
It helps in implementing strategies to improvise the product.
 

It helps the development and implementation of strategies to achieve long-term financial, social, and environmental goals.

  • Question 32

5 out of 5 points

The Institute of Management Accountants issues which certification?
Selected Answer:  

CMA

Answers: CPA
CIA
CFE
 

CMA

  • Question 33

5 out of 5 points

A report showing the actual financial results for a period compared to the budgeted financial results for that same period would most likely be called a ________.
Selected Answer:  

performance report

Answers: management forecast
strategic plan
revised plan
 

performance report

  • Question 34

5 out of 5 points

Management accounting is considered most likely to be successful when it ________.
Selected Answer:  

is timely

Answers: helps creditors evaluate the company’s performance
is relevant and reported annually
helps investors improve their decisions
 

is timely

  • Question 35

5 out of 5 points

Stones Manufacturing, sells a marble slab for $1000. Fixed costs are $35,000, while the variable costs are $450 per slab. The company currently plans to sell 230 slabs this month. What is the margin of safety assuming 85 slabs are budgeted?
Selected Answer:  

$21,363.6364

Answers: $166,363.636
$62,863.6364
$35,000
 

$21,363.6364

 

Response Feedback: Breakeven in number of slabs = $35,000 / ($1000 − $450) = 64 slabs
  • Question 36

5 out of 5 points

Which of the following is true about the assumptions underlying basic CVP analysis?
Selected Answer:  

Only selling price, variable cost per unit, and total fixed costs are known and constant.

Answers:  

Only selling price, variable cost per unit, and total fixed costs are known and constant.

Only selling price and variable cost per unit are known and constant.
Selling price varies with demand and supply of the product.
Selling price, variable cost per unit, fixed cost per unit, and total fixed costs are known and constant.
  • Question 37

5 out of 5 points

As per CVP, operating income calculations use ________.
Selected Answer:  

contribution margins and fixed costs

Answers:  

contribution margins and fixed costs

nonoperating revenues and nonoperating expenses
income tax expense and net income
net income and dividends
  • Question 38

5 out of 5 points

At the breakeven point of 3000 units, variable costs total $4000and fixed costs total $10,000. The 3001st unit sold will contribute ________ to profits.
Selected Answer:  

$3.33

Answers: $2.00
$1.33
 

$3.33

$4.67

 

Response Feedback: Fixed costs of $10,000/3000 units = Contribution Margin of $3.33 per unit.

 

Data Screening Basics

  • Points30

 

  • Questions10

 

  • Time Limit45 Minutes

 

  • Allowed Attempts Unlimited

Instructions

The quiz:

  • Covers the Textbook material from Module 4: Week 4.
  • Contains10 multiple-choice 
  • Is limited to 45 minutes.
  • Allows unlimited attempts and the highest attempt will count towards the grade.
  • Is worth 30 p.

TAKE THE QUIZ AGAIN

Attempt History

Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1

 

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

On which SPSS screen can you find the results of any analysis that is run?

 

Correct!

 

output screen

 

data view

 

variable view

 

syntax screen

 

Question 2

0 / 3 pts

On which SPSS screen can you find rows that represent each participant or case in the data set?

 

Correct Answer

 

data view

You Answered

 

variable view

 

syntax screen

 

output screen

 

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

If the data for year in college is coded (freshman = 1, sophomore = 2, junior =3, senior = 4), which of the following represents a problematic score in a frequency table?

Correct!

 

0

 

 

1

 

 

2

 

 

3

 

 

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

If a researcher wants to obtain a frequency table in SPSS, which of the following menu items should NOT be selected?

 

 

data

 

analyze

 

descriptives

 

frequencies

 

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

What is a standard graph for assessing the distribution of scores for categorical variables?

 

histogram

 

frequency table

 

 

scatterplot

 

Correct!

 

bar chart

 

 

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

A researcher wants to create a graph that shows the number of men and women in her sample, which graph should she use?

 

histogram

 

frequency table

 

 

scatterplot

 

Correct!

 

bar chart

 

 

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

For which of the following sets of variables should cross-tabulations NOT be used?

Correct!

 

gender and age

 

 

gender and ethnicity

 

 

relationship status and eye color

 

relationship status and ethnicity

 

 

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

Which of the following SPSS menu items should NOT be selected for cross-tabulations?

Correct!

 

categorical

 

 

analyze

 

 

descriptives

 

 

crosstabs

 

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

A researcher measures depression and anxiety levels among college women. If there is high variation of depression scores among women with low anxiety and low variation of depression scores among women with low anxiety, what assumption of a Pearson’s Correlation is violated in this data?

Correct!

 

homoscedasticity of variance

 

bivariate normality

 

 

normal distributions

 

 

no assumptions are violated

 

 

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

What kind of variables are needed for a Pearson’s Correlation?

Correct!

 

two quantitative

 

 

two categorical

 

 

one quantitative and one categorical

 

 

any two variables

 

The Null Hypothesis And You

  • Points30

 

  • Questions10

 

  • Time Limit45 Minutes

 

  • Allowed Attempts Unlimited

Instructions

The quiz:

  • Covers the Textbookmaterial from Module 3: .
  • Contains10 multiple-choice 
  • Is limitedto 45 minutes.
  • Allows unlimited attempts and the highest attempt will count towards the grade.
  • Is worth 30 points.

 

Attempt Time Score
KEPT Attempt 2
LATEST Attempt 2
Attempt 1

 

 

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

What can we know from our results of a study that we have failed to reject the null hypothesis?

Correct!

 

the sample means were not statistically different from one another

 

 

we have committed Type II error

 

 

the theoretical population are not different from one another

 

 

there was no sampling error

 

 

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

Which of these is an acceptable interpretation of a non-significant outcome in research?

Correct!

 

researchers should fail to reject the null hypothesis

 

 

the null hypothesis should be accepted

 

 

the null hypothesis should be rejected

 

 

results must be incorrect

 

 

Question 3

0 / 3 pts

A Type II error occurs if:

You Answered

 

researchers reject the null hypothesis when they should not have rejected it

 

Correct Answer

 

researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when they should have rejected it

 

 

researchers reject the null hypothesis when they should have rejected it

 

 

researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when they should not have rejected it

 

 

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

If the nominal alpha is set to .05, what p value would be considered statistically significant?

Correct!

 

.022

 

 

.22

 

 

2.2

 

 

22

 

 

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

A Type I error occurs if:

Correct!

 

researchers reject the null hypothesis when they should not have rejected it

 

 

researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when they should have rejected it

 

 

researchers reject the null hypothesis when they should have rejected it

 

 

researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when they should not have rejected it

 

 

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

If nominal alpha is set to .01, which of these p values would be considered criteria for rejecting the null hypothesis?

Correct!

 

.009

 

 

.03

 

 

.04

 

 

.042

 

 

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

When we fail to reject the null hypothesis we:

Correct!

 

claim there is no difference

 

 

reject the null hypothesis

 

 

reject the alternative hypothesis

 

 

claim there is a difference

 

 

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

The advantage of using Cohen’s d is that it provides a difference in group means based on the:

Correct!

 

standard deviation of the scores

 

units of measurement for the scores

 

 

variance of the scores

 

 

outliers of the scores

 

 

Question 9

0 / 3 pts

When we reject the null hypothesis we:

Correct Answer

 

claim there is a difference

 

 

reject the real hypothesis

 

 

claim there is no difference

 

You Answered

 

reject the alternative hypothesis

 

 

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

What can lead to a large difference between a population mean and a sample mean?

Correct!

 

sampling error

 

 

random sampling

 

 

an incorrect alpha level

 

 

a small test statistic

 

 

Basics Of Statistics

  • Points30

 

  • Questions10

 

  • Time Limit45 Minutes

 

  • Allowed AttemptsUnlimited

Instructions

The quiz:

  • Covers the Textbookmaterial from Module 2.
  • Contains10 multiple-choice 
  • Is limitedto 45 minutes.
  • Allowsunlimited attempts and the highest attempt will count towards the grade.
  • Is worth 30 points.

TAKE THE QUIZ AGAIN

Attempt History

Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1

 

 

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

Which of the following is needed to calculate confidence interval’s upper limit?

Correct!

 

SEM

 

SS

 

each score value

 

s2

 

Question 2

0 / 3 pts

In order to calculate the mean you must:

Correct Answer

 

have at least interval level of measurement

 

You Answered

 

divide by degrees of freedom

 

 

take the square root of the sum

 

 

multiply each score by itself

 

 

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

The standard error of the mean is conceptually similar to:

Correct!

 

the standard deviation

 

 

variance

 

 

sum of squared deviations

 

 

causal inference

 

 

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

The t distribution and the z distribution are:

Correct!

 

symmetrical

 

 

random

 

 

leptokurtic

 

 

biased

 

 

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

A statistic of the sample is an estimate of:

Correct!

 

the parameter in the theoretical population

 

 

the statistic in the second sample

 

 

the parameter in the theoretical sample

 

 

the parameter in the second sample

 

 

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

For every statistic (e.g., mean) a researcher calculates in her sample, she is estimating that same value in the:

Correct!

 

population

 

 

second sample

 

 

experimental sample

 

 

distribution

 

 

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

All of the following calculations are necessary for calculating s except for:

Correct!

 

t critical

 

mean

 

 

sum of squared deviations

 

 

variance

 

 

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

We use a t critical when the population is:

Correct!

 

theoretical

 

 

known

 

 

skewed

 

 

biased

 

 

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

z  and t distributions are known because:

Correct!

 

statisticians developed\discovered them

 

 

Karl Pearson developed them

 

 

 

they have always been

 

they measure variance

 

 

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

When different sets of data of the same size are randomly chosen from a population, the resulting variation in values is called:

Correct!

 

sampling error

 

 

standard deviation

 

 

magnitude of error

 

 

confidence interval

 

 

Basics Of Research Results for Dawn Long

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

Stratified random sampling is used to ensure:rect!

 

representation of groups indicative of the population

 

ethicality

 

randomization

 

similar groups

 

 

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

In recent years, many statisticians have argued

 

for looser application of measurement requirements

 

for stricter adherence to the four levels of measurement

 

that there is only one level of measurement

 

that Likert scales should be avoided

 

 

Question 3

0 / 3 pts

What is the simpler distinction between measurement levels that is common among contemporary statisticians?

correct Answer

categorical and quantitative

 

You Answered

 

nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio

 

 

quantitative and qualitative

 

 

individual, group, race, and type

 

 

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

What does it mean if a sample is “representative”?

Correct!

 

it has similar characteristics as the population

 

 

it is unique

 

 

it is ethical

 

 

it is a convenience sample

 

 

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

The degree to which a study supports a causal relationship is:

Correct!

 

internal validity

 

 

construct validity

 

 

discriminant validity

 

 

external validity

 

 

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

What is a biased sample?

Correct!

 

a sample that is systematically different from the population

 

 

a sample of people with strong opinions

 

 

a sample that has uneven groups

 

 

a sample that produces results that meet the expectations of researchers

 

 

Question 7

0 / 3 pts

Which of these is NOT a typical part of an experiment?

Correct Answer

 

manipulation of mediators

 

 

random assignment of participants to groups

 

 

two or more treatments, dosage levels, or interventions

 

You Answered

 

assessment of the outcome variable

 

 

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

The main purpose of using random assignment in a research study is to:

Correct!

 

increase the ability to make cause-effect inferences between variable

 

 

increase the external validity of a study

 

 

increase the ability to generalize the results of a study to a larger population

 

 

make the sample resemble the population as closely as possible

 

 

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

What percentage of scores are within three standard deviations from the mean?

Correct!

 

99.72

 

 

95.44

 

 

68.26

 

 

34.13

 

 

Question 10

0 / 3 pts

Approximately two-thirds of all values in the standard normal distribution fall within how many standard deviations of the mean?

Correct Answer

 

1

 

 

6

 

You Answered

 

3

 

 

2.5

 

Calculus Question

I’m working on a calculus test / quiz prep and need support to help me understand better.

I have a calculus 2 Exam. I need someone to help me with the exam. the answer must be handwritten. duration 1.5 hr. I will upload the exam in pdf.

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