Category Archives: Exams
EXAM; HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following enzyme protein “cleans house” in the brain by removing nonstrengthened memories?
áCaMKII
protein phosphatase 1
á protein kinase M zeta
AMPA
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
When presynaptic neurons are active and postsynaptic neurons fire at the same time, ______.
one cancels the effects of the other
the synapse is strengthened
no neurotransmitter is released
the action potential is inhibited
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
Blocking receptors for this neurotransmitter shortly after learning has taken place impairs consolidation and memory.
serotonin
acetylcholine
dopamine
norepinephrine
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
According to projected estimates, the cost of caring for Alzheimer’s and other dementia patients in the U.S. will be ______.
$259 billion
$249 billion
$259 million
$249 million
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
All of the following are environmental risks when it comes to epigenetic changes linked to Alzheimer’s EXCEPT ______.
pesticides and fertilizers
vitamin D deficiency
herbicides and insecticides
secondhand smoke
IncorrectQuestion 6
0 / 2 pts
Why are laboratory models of Alzheimer’s finding difficulty replicating the disease completely?
Amyloid plaques can be produced, but not neurofibrillary tangles.
Neurofibrillary tangles can be produced, but not amyloid plaques.
Plaques and tangles can be produced, but not amyloid and tau.
Amyloid plaques can be produced, amyloid and tau.
IncorrectQuestion 7
0 / 2 pts
Which of the following is not one of the ways in which a memory remains stable yet malleable?
unlearning
forgetting
reconsolidation
extinction
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s disease is FALSE?
It is the 6th leading cause of death in the United States.
It can lead to behavioral problems, such as aggression.
The individual usually does not have trouble remembering what happened the day before.
The individual often repeats the same questions during a conversation.
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
Brain damage that is limited to hippocampal area CA1 results in ______.
moderate anterograde amnesia and profound retrograde amnesia
moderate anterograde amnesia and minimal retrograde amnesia
profound anterograde amnesia and profound retrograde amnesia
profound anterograde amnesia and minimal retrograde amnesia
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
Hippocampus is to brain as ______.
hard drive is to computer
display is to smart phone
RAM is to computer
SD card is to tablet
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
At which part(s) of the neuron do the clumps of beta amyloid cluster?
where signals are received
where signals are processed
where action potentials occur
where neurotransmitters are released
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
Your great uncle Ryan, at 70 years of age, is starting to show signs of memory problems. He has difficulty remembering where he left his wallet and keys and sometimes cannot recall the names of his grandkids. If you know he has a good diet and does not drink or smoke, what disorder can you definitively rule out?
Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
Huntington’s disease
Korsakoff’s syndrome
IncorrectQuestion 13
0 / 2 pts
Your grandmother unfortunately had a stroke over the weekend. You take her to the doctor, and the doctor says that despite some memory loss, her nondeclarative memory will be fine. With what form of memory will your grandmother likely NOT have any deficits?
picture memory
memory for facts
memory for skills
memory for events
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
Many of the genes implicated in ADHD code for which neurotransmitters?
dopamine, serotonin, and acetylcholine
dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine
serotonin, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine
norepinephrine, dopamine, and glutamate
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
A strain of mice engineered with a third copy of a critical chromosome 21 region produced ______.
less of two proteins that support neural survival
toxins that caused a buildup of neurofibrillary tangles
an abnormally high amount of dihydrotestosterone
symptoms that mimicked Korsakoff’s syndrome
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
In a memory task that activates the increased activity in the right prefrontal cortex in young adults, older adults who perform the same task just as well show activation in ______.
the right prefrontal cortex
the left prefrontal cortex
both the right and left prefrontal cortices
the right prefrontal cortex and left temporal lobe
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
Someone with ASD might think that other people can read minds, because they can correctly predict what someone else is about to do. This is because individuals with ASD lack a ______.
sense of self
theory of mind
hippocampus
amygdala
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
One possible explanation for the deficits in social, language, and emotional functioning among autistic individuals is ______.
overgrowth of frontal and temporal brain areas during development
lack of growth in frontal and temporal brain areas during development
overactivation of frontal and temporal brain areas during specific tasks
decreased gray matter volume in the prefrontal and temporal brain areas
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
Individuals with fragile X syndrome typically have an IQ below ______, while those with phenylketonuria show an IQ level of about ______.
50; 100
100; 50
20; 75
75; 20
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
IQ test scores were originally designed so that if an individual is about as intelligent as others of the same age, then the IQ score was ______.
0
1
50
100
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
If a team of researchers studied your brain because you scored abnormally high in intellectual g, what would they find?
a smaller brain
a brain with a larger parietal lobe
a brain that had an efficient network connecting frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes
a brain with larger sulci
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
When a person says, “I do not understand how people can communicate just by looking at each other. It’s as though they can read each other’s thoughts,” he/she shows evidence of ______.
echolalia
literalism in language communication
microcephaly
lack of theory of mind
Question 23
2 / 2 pts
If you were doing some basic arithmetic to figure out how much money to tip a server for good (15%) or excellent (20%) service in your head, what part of your brain would be most active?
both parietal lobes
left prefrontal cortex
insular cortex
anterior cingulate cortex
IncorrectQuestion 24
0 / 2 pts
Which of the following is TRUE regarding individuals with damage to their parietal lobes?
They can arrange numbers in rank order but cannot perform precise calculations.
They can estimate results but cannot perform precise calculations.
They can perform precise calculations but cannot arrange numbers in rank order.
They cannot estimate results or perform precise calculations.
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
Little Zoë still uses her fingers to count 2 + 3, while her older brother Zach automatically knows the answer is 5. Zoey is using her ______, and Zach is using his ______.
prefrontal lobe; parietal lobe
prefrontal lobe; frontal lobe
parietal lobe; parietal lobe
parietal areas; left frontal area
EXAM: ECOSYSTEM
- Question 1
5 out of 5 points
The best way to reclaim an ecosystem that is extensively damaged is to ____. | |||||||
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- Question 2
0 out of 5 points
The loss of mayflies from a stream suggests that the quality of water is declining; therefore, mayflies are a(n) ____ species. | |||||||
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- Question 3
5 out of 5 points
To a person studying utilization of cage space for lions in a zoo, the most useful data would be expressed by the number of ____. | |||||||
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- Question 4
5 out of 5 points
Which element is a density-dependent factor that controls the size of a population? | |||||||
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- Question 5
5 out of 5 points
Sea lions can live into their thirties and produce no more than one pup per year. A sea lion is a(n) ____ species. | |||||||
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- Question 6
5 out of 5 points
An array of organisms together with their physical environment is referred to as a(n) ____. | |||||||
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- Question 7
0 out of 5 points
Which item would be most attractive to a fire ant? | |||||||
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- Question 8
0 out of 5 points
Secondary succession can occur ____. | |||||||
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- Question 9
5 out of 5 points
Variations in the timing of master gene expression during embryonic development in vertebrates is responsible for ____. | |||||||
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- Question 10
5 out of 5 points
All vertebrate embryos have _____ at some point during embryonic development, indicating a common evolutionary ancestor. | |||||||
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- Question 11
0 out of 5 points
Typically, where would the oldest fossils be found? | |||||||
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- Question 12
5 out of 5 points
Environmental pressures result in a(n) ____ of adaptive alleles. | |||||||
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- Question 13
0 out of 5 points
In the universal ABO blood grouping system, there are four phenotypes – A, B, AB, and O – which are determined by three different alleles. The presence of three alleles in the ABO blood grouping system is an example of ____. | |||||||
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- Question 14
5 out of 5 points
In Lake Victoria, hundreds of cichlid fish species arose after the lake last dried up 12,400 years ago. This is an example of ____. | |||||||
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- Question 15
5 out of 5 points
A ____ secretes a chemical message for the purpose of cellular communication. | |||||||
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- Question 16
5 out of 5 points
Constriction of the pupil of the eye is caused by ____. | |||||||
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- Question 17
5 out of 5 points
Sensory information is received by the ____. | |||||||
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- Question 18
5 out of 5 points
Stomata ____. | |||||||
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- Question 19
5 out of 5 points
What simple tissue composed of living cells is responsible for supporting rapidly growing plant parts such as young stems and leaf stalks? | |||||||
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- Question 20
0 out of 5 points
The tissue found in the center of a root is ____. | |||||||
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Final Exam
Final Exam
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
___________ is the process in which individuals share thoughts, ideas, and feelings in understandable ways.
Public Speaking
Verbal Code
Communication
Informative Speech
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
___________ speeches promote understanding of an idea or convey a body of related facts.
Special Occasion
Introductory
Persuasive
Informative
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
This type of speech seeks to influence beliefs, choices, and opinions of the audience.
Introductory
Special Occasion
Persuasive
Informative
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
This form of group speech requires each group member to cover a topic during the speech or presentation. This type of group speech is most common.
Panel
Forum
Symposium
Oral Report
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
Problems commonly occur in this stage of the listening process because the listener places their own meaning to the speaker’s message. In this stage, listeners often avoid asking questions because they assume they understand the message.
Receive
Evaluate
Comprehend
Interpret
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
This is the most common form of anxiety and is caused by factors present in a specific speaking situation.
Situational Anxiety
General Anxiety
Performance anxiety
Trait anxiety
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
This term refers to internal anxieties an individual brings to a speaking situation.
General anxiety
Situational anxiety
Trait anxiety
Performance anxiety
IncorrectQuestion 8
0 / 2 pts
During a lecture, Kelsey notices that the class is making eye contact with her, nodding their heads, responding to discussion, and the students are receptive to the information. These audience members can be described as a __________ type of audience.
Engaged
Indifferent
Friendly
Neutral
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
Jake is presenting to his colleagues at a work meeting. Jake notices that his audience has a very short attention span. The audience is giving little feedback, and some of his audience members appear to be day dreaming. This audience can be referred to as _____________.
Neutral
Hostile
Distracted
Uninterested
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
Nancy is giving a presentation to her classmates on “How to be prepared for a job interview.” Nancy arranges the main points in a specific order of steps to follow from first to last. Which speech pattern is demonstrated?
Topical
Causal
Chronological
Spatial
IncorrectQuestion 11
0 / 2 pts
During Anthony’s presentation he says, “Now that I have explained to you why should join a club on campus, I will share with you the types of clubs on campus.” This is an example of a(n) _________ used during a speech.
Attention Getter
Transition
Summary
Symposium
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is true for the conclusion of a speech?
The speaker should state their credibility in the conclusion of the speech.
No new information should be shared in the conclusion.
A conclusion should be 40-50% of a speech.
There should be an attention grabber in the conclusion.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is not an example of how to analyze an audience?
Analyze your audience by psychological information
Analyze your audience by demographic information
Analyze your audience by research information
Analyze your audience by situational information
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
Caroline has prepared for her informative speech by making a brief set of speaker’s notes with keywords and phrases. She avoided writing out her speech word- for- word so that she can sound more conversational and maintain eye contact with the audience. Caroline is demonstrating which method of speech delivery?
Extemporaneous speaking
Speaking from manuscript
Impromptu
Speaking from memory
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
This part of the communication process can be described as the speaker putting the message into a form that the audience can understand.
Encoding
Stimulus
Decoding
Feedback
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Educated Greeks and Romans studied ___________ which is the art of persuasive speaking.
Pathos
Ethics
Debates
Rhetoric
IncorrectQuestion 17
0 / 2 pts
This form of listening is described as an individual listening to understand and learn. One example would be listening during a class lecture.
Listening for entertainment
Listening to comprehend
Listening to learn
Listening for appreciation
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
This phenomenon occurs when the anxious speaker believes “All eyes are on me…”
General anxiety
Communication apprehension
Performance fear syndrome
Spotlight syndrome
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
T/F: Persuasion is offering information and letting the audience make up their own minds.
True
False
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
This type of audience a speaker’s greatest challenge.
Apathetic
Hostile
Bored
Uninterested
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
Food, air, and water are components of which stage of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
Social
Safety
Essential
Physiological
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
This type of speech is given to pay tribute to someone who has passed away.
Eulogy
Honorary Speech
Funeral Speech
Toast
Question 23
2 / 2 pts
This is a position that briefly goes against or opposes the main argument of a persuasive speech.
Debate
Counterargument
Pathos
Disposition
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
T/F: The main goal of a special occasion speech is bring up controversial topics.
False
True
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
Which form of speaker credibility refers to the speaker having a dynamic and enthusiastic delivery?
Objectivity
Dynamism
Friendly
Competency
Question 26
2 / 2 pts
This form of vocal variety can be described as “not the words you say, but how you say the words…”
Pitch
Tone
Rate
Attitude
Question 27
2 / 2 pts
A _________ is when no formal speech is given. The group informally discusses an issue in front of the audience.
Lecture
Toast
Forum
Panel
Question 28
2 / 2 pts
All of these examples of supporting materials require citations except which of the following?
Important facts
Statistics
Personal narratives
Quotations
Question 29
2 / 2 pts
________ are gestures that control the flow of communication in a small group or conversation.
Emblems
Adaptors
Illustrators
Regulators
Question 30
2 / 2 pts
__________ are types of special occasion speeches that formally recognizing and honor a person, organization, or occasion.
Commencement Address
Commemorative Speeches
Speech of Introduction
Acceptance Speeches
Question 31
2 / 2 pts
________ can be defined as the logic and evidence you present as a speaker. This is important to your appeal’s success.
Ethos
Logos
Pathos
Question 32
2 / 2 pts
There are four basic elements of credibility of a speaker. ________ refers to the speaker being open minded and presenting both sides of an argument.
Trustworthiness
Dynamism
Objectivity
Competency
Question 33
2 / 2 pts
Dawn is anxious on speech day because she did not practice. She avoids eye contact with the audience and fidgets with her speakers notes. These gestures that signal nervousness are referred to as ________.
Adaptors
Regulators
Illustrators
Emblems
Question 34
2 / 2 pts
It is important to use strong, forceful persuasive language for a persuasive speech. Which of the following is an example of forceful language?
All of the above
“Need”
“Should”
“Ought to”
Question 35
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is the correct order, starting with the most important need to survive (from the bottom to top of the pyramid), of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
Physiological, safety, social, self-esteem, self-actualization
Safety, physiological, social, self-esteem, self-actualization
Safety, self-actualization, physiological, social, self-esteem
Physiological, self-actualization, social, safety, self-esteem
Question 36
2 / 2 pts
Rico is giving a persuasive speech on why one should volunteer at a local nursing home. He focuses on getting his audience emotionally involved by showing personal images of his experiences as a volunteer and telling heartwarming stories. Rico is effectively using ________ in his speech.
Logos
Ethos
Pathos
IncorrectQuestion 37
0 / 2 pts
Shelby notices that her professor avoids using his full pitch range during lectures and the professor often sounds expressionless. This can be referred to as ________.
Rate
Articulation
Monotone
Verbal Code
Question 38
2 / 2 pts
Speech to _________ seeks both agreement and action of the audience. The speaker urges audience members to continue to doing something, stop doing something, or never to begin doing something.
Stimulate or intensify social cohesion
Convince
Inform
Actuate
Question 39
2 / 2 pts
T/F: It is important to limit the colors and font choices on your visual aid. Too much clutter can lose the attention of your audience members and cause a distraction.
True
False
Question 40
2 / 2 pts
This pattern can be used for informative speeches when there is no relationship among the main points. Main points can be arranged by most to least important, familiar to unfamiliar, or however the speaker decides.
Topical
Organized
Spatial
Chronological
Question 41
2 / 2 pts
What are the three components of persuasion according to Aristotle?
Pathos, chronos, logos
Legos, ethos, pathos
Ethos, logos, pathos
Ethos, logos, chronos
Question 42
2 / 2 pts
When giving his informative speech, Gregg points to his charts and graphs to explain and clarify the different ideas and processes to the class. These actions are an example of _________.
Regulators
Adaptors
Illustrators
Emblems
Question 43
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is not an example of a listening filter?
Age
Culture
Technology
Question 44
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is not one of the four forms of vocal variety?
Rate
Appearance
Volume
Pitch
Question 45
2 / 2 pts
Martha is distracted during her 12:00 class because she has a midterm Math exam later that day. She can not concentrate on the current lecture in class because all she can focus on is worrying about the exam and studying. Martha is experiencing ________________.
Active Listening
External Noise
Internal Noise
Speaker Distractions
Question 46
2 / 2 pts
Individuals have their own ________________ which is made up of attitudes, beliefs, and values. This term influences how individuals interpret messages.
World View
Moral Code
Frame of Reference
Life Goals
Question 47
2 / 2 pts
A student who is taking notes in class, gives nonverbal and verbal feedback, and aims to comprehend the message can be considered a(n) _______________.
Encoder
Active Listener
Passive Listener
Extemporaneous Listener
IncorrectQuestion 48
0 / 2 pts
In 2016, President Obama visited Hiroshima to speak at an event to memorialize 71st anniversary of the Hiroshima bombing. He also took part in the wreath-laying ceremony at the Hiroshima Peace Memorial. This event is an example a _______________.
Acceptance Speech
Travel Spectacle
Speech of Introduction
Political Spectacle
Question 49
2 / 2 pts
Words and phrases such as “um,” “uhhh,” “you know,” and “like” are examples of ______________. These are to be avoided in professional presentations.
Vocal Pauses
Transitions
Vocal Fillers
Gap Words
Question 50
2 / 2 pts
This theorists wrote The Rhetorical Situation in 1968 to propose a relationship between rhetoric and situations.
Lloyd Bitzer
Aristotle
Cicero
Kenneth Burke
Serial Season 3, Episodes 1-2
45 points
- The defense attorney says, “innocence is a misdemeanor.” How does Russ describe this phrase? Do you think this is accurate or inaccurate, based on your current understanding of the criminal justice system?
- Describe what happened in Anna’s case in an unbiased, neutral way.
- What were two positives and two negatives of how you think Anna’s case was handled, from the incident to the conclusion?
- What are the factors that Russ is weighing when deciding whether or not to try Anna’s case?
- What was the outcome in Anna’s case? Do you agree with the outcome? Explain your answer.
- Based on the probation requirements set forth by both judges featured in Episode 2, do you think it would be easier to serve jail time or follow the strict probation requirements for multiple years? Explain your answer based on your current life situation.
- How did Judge Gaul get his position on the bench? What is his “style” as a judge? What are your thoughts about his methods of handling cases?
- A lot of controversial actions and behaviors were brought up in Episode 2. What was the one thing you were most surprised by and why?
Review Test Submission: Midterm _2022_Spring
User | |
Course | 2022SP-23007-ACCT3311-Costs/Budgets |
Test | Midterm _2022_Spring |
Started | |
Submitted | |
Due Date | |
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Results Displayed | All Answers, Submitted Answers, Correct Answers, Feedback |
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- Question 2
23 out of 25 points
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- Question 3
25 out of 25 points
The Western Co. established the following overhead cost pools and cost drivers:
Required: a) What is the overhead rate per machine hour if the number of machine hours (MHs) is used as a single cost driver under traditional costing system? b) Utilizing traditional costing, how much overhead is assigned to the order based on machine hours as a single cost driver? c) Utilizing activity-based costing, how much overhead is assigned to the order? d) Explain the reasons why the overhead costs computed under two systems are different. |
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- Question 4
5 out of 5 points
Why do most companies adhere to GAAP for their basic internal financial statements? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 5
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following accounts is not classified as an asset? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 6
5 out of 5 points
In refining a cost system | |||||||||||||
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- Question 7
5 out of 5 points
Evaluating customer reaction of the trade-off of giving up some features of a product for a lower price would best fit which category of management decisions under activity-based management? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 8
5 out of 5 points
Advertising of a specific product is an example of | |||||||||||||
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- Question 9
0 out of 5 points
A significant limitation of activity-based costing is the | |||||||||||||
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- Question 10
5 out of 5 points
The value chain | |||||||||||||
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- Question 11
5 out of 5 points
One way for managers to cope with uncertainty in profit planning is to | |||||||||||||
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- Question 12
5 out of 5 points
Production-cost cross-subsidization results from | |||||||||||||
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- Question 13
5 out of 5 points
The first step in the seven-step approach to job costing is to | |||||||||||||
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- Question 14
5 out of 5 points
_____ management exists to provide advice and assistance to those responsible for attaining the objectives of the organization. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 15
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following is not a key success factor in a company’s effort to deliver increased levels of performance to the customer? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 16
5 out of 5 points
Finished goods inventory would normally include ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 17
5 out of 5 points
A manufacturing plant produces two product lines: golf equipment and soccer equipment. An example of direct costs for the golf equipment line is ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 18
5 out of 5 points
Service-sector companies ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 19
5 out of 5 points
An actual cost is ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 20
0 out of 5 points
Direct materials inventory would normally include ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 21
5 out of 5 points
A job that shows low profitability may be the result of ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 22
5 out of 5 points
The budgeted direct-labor cost rate includes ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 23
5 out of 5 points
In the service sector, to achieve timely reporting on the profitability of an engagement, a company will use ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 24
5 out of 5 points
The cost allocation base ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 25
5 out of 5 points
________ is used to record and accumulate all the costs assigned to a specific job. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 26
5 out of 5 points
Facility-sustaining costs are the costs of activities ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 27
5 out of 5 points
For a company with diverse products, undercosting overhead of a product will lead to ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 28
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following cost and cost allocation base have a strong cause and effect relationship? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 29
5 out of 5 points
The goal of a properly constructed ABC system is to ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 30
5 out of 5 points
________ aims to improve operations throughout the value chain and to deliver products and services that exceed customer expectations. |
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- Question 31
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following is true of sustainability? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 32
5 out of 5 points
The Institute of Management Accountants issues which certification? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 33
5 out of 5 points
A report showing the actual financial results for a period compared to the budgeted financial results for that same period would most likely be called a ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 34
5 out of 5 points
Management accounting is considered most likely to be successful when it ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 35
5 out of 5 points
Stones Manufacturing, sells a marble slab for $1000. Fixed costs are $35,000, while the variable costs are $450 per slab. The company currently plans to sell 230 slabs this month. What is the margin of safety assuming 85 slabs are budgeted? | |||||||||||||||
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- Question 36
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following is true about the assumptions underlying basic CVP analysis? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 37
5 out of 5 points
As per CVP, operating income calculations use ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 38
5 out of 5 points
At the breakeven point of 3000 units, variable costs total $4000and fixed costs total $10,000. The 3001st unit sold will contribute ________ to profits. | |||||||||||||||
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User | |
Course | 2022SP-23007-ACCT3311-Costs/Budgets |
Test | Midterm _2022_Spring |
Started | |
Submitted | |
Due Date | |
Status | |
Attempt Score | |
Time Elapsed | |
Results Displayed | All Answers, Submitted Answers, Correct Answers, Feedback |
- Question 1
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- Question 2
23 out of 25 points
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- Question 3
25 out of 25 points
The Western Co. established the following overhead cost pools and cost drivers:
Required: a) What is the overhead rate per machine hour if the number of machine hours (MHs) is used as a single cost driver under traditional costing system? b) Utilizing traditional costing, how much overhead is assigned to the order based on machine hours as a single cost driver? c) Utilizing activity-based costing, how much overhead is assigned to the order? d) Explain the reasons why the overhead costs computed under two systems are different. |
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- Question 4
5 out of 5 points
Why do most companies adhere to GAAP for their basic internal financial statements? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 5
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following accounts is not classified as an asset? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 6
5 out of 5 points
In refining a cost system | |||||||||||||
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- Question 7
5 out of 5 points
Evaluating customer reaction of the trade-off of giving up some features of a product for a lower price would best fit which category of management decisions under activity-based management? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 8
5 out of 5 points
Advertising of a specific product is an example of | |||||||||||||
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- Question 9
0 out of 5 points
A significant limitation of activity-based costing is the | |||||||||||||
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- Question 10
5 out of 5 points
The value chain | |||||||||||||
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- Question 11
5 out of 5 points
One way for managers to cope with uncertainty in profit planning is to | |||||||||||||
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- Question 12
5 out of 5 points
Production-cost cross-subsidization results from | |||||||||||||
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- Question 13
5 out of 5 points
The first step in the seven-step approach to job costing is to | |||||||||||||
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- Question 14
5 out of 5 points
_____ management exists to provide advice and assistance to those responsible for attaining the objectives of the organization. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 15
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following is not a key success factor in a company’s effort to deliver increased levels of performance to the customer? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 16
5 out of 5 points
Finished goods inventory would normally include ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 17
5 out of 5 points
A manufacturing plant produces two product lines: golf equipment and soccer equipment. An example of direct costs for the golf equipment line is ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 18
5 out of 5 points
Service-sector companies ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 19
5 out of 5 points
An actual cost is ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 20
0 out of 5 points
Direct materials inventory would normally include ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 21
5 out of 5 points
A job that shows low profitability may be the result of ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 22
5 out of 5 points
The budgeted direct-labor cost rate includes ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 23
5 out of 5 points
In the service sector, to achieve timely reporting on the profitability of an engagement, a company will use ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 24
5 out of 5 points
The cost allocation base ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 25
5 out of 5 points
________ is used to record and accumulate all the costs assigned to a specific job. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 26
5 out of 5 points
Facility-sustaining costs are the costs of activities ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 27
5 out of 5 points
For a company with diverse products, undercosting overhead of a product will lead to ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 28
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following cost and cost allocation base have a strong cause and effect relationship? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 29
5 out of 5 points
The goal of a properly constructed ABC system is to ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 30
5 out of 5 points
________ aims to improve operations throughout the value chain and to deliver products and services that exceed customer expectations. |
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- Question 31
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following is true of sustainability? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 32
5 out of 5 points
The Institute of Management Accountants issues which certification? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 33
5 out of 5 points
A report showing the actual financial results for a period compared to the budgeted financial results for that same period would most likely be called a ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 34
5 out of 5 points
Management accounting is considered most likely to be successful when it ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 35
5 out of 5 points
Stones Manufacturing, sells a marble slab for $1000. Fixed costs are $35,000, while the variable costs are $450 per slab. The company currently plans to sell 230 slabs this month. What is the margin of safety assuming 85 slabs are budgeted? | |||||||||||||||
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- Question 36
5 out of 5 points
Which of the following is true about the assumptions underlying basic CVP analysis? | |||||||||||||
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- Question 37
5 out of 5 points
As per CVP, operating income calculations use ________. | |||||||||||||
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- Question 38
5 out of 5 points
At the breakeven point of 3000 units, variable costs total $4000and fixed costs total $10,000. The 3001st unit sold will contribute ________ to profits. | |||||||||||||||
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Data Screening Basics
- Points30
- Questions10
- Time Limit45 Minutes
- Allowed Attempts Unlimited
Instructions
The quiz:
- Covers the Textbook material from Module 4: Week 4.
- Contains10 multiple-choice
- Is limited to 45 minutes.
- Allows unlimited attempts and the highest attempt will count towards the grade.
- Is worth 30 p.
Attempt History
Attempt | Time | Score | |
LATEST | Attempt 1 |
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
On which SPSS screen can you find the results of any analysis that is run?
Correct!
output screen
data view
variable view
syntax screen
Question 2
0 / 3 pts
On which SPSS screen can you find rows that represent each participant or case in the data set?
Correct Answer
data view
You Answered
variable view
syntax screen
output screen
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
If the data for year in college is coded (freshman = 1, sophomore = 2, junior =3, senior = 4), which of the following represents a problematic score in a frequency table?
Correct!
0
1
2
3
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
If a researcher wants to obtain a frequency table in SPSS, which of the following menu items should NOT be selected?
data
analyze
descriptives
frequencies
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
What is a standard graph for assessing the distribution of scores for categorical variables?
histogram
frequency table
scatterplot
Correct!
bar chart
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
A researcher wants to create a graph that shows the number of men and women in her sample, which graph should she use?
histogram
frequency table
scatterplot
Correct!
bar chart
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
For which of the following sets of variables should cross-tabulations NOT be used?
Correct!
gender and age
gender and ethnicity
relationship status and eye color
relationship status and ethnicity
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
Which of the following SPSS menu items should NOT be selected for cross-tabulations?
Correct!
categorical
analyze
descriptives
crosstabs
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
A researcher measures depression and anxiety levels among college women. If there is high variation of depression scores among women with low anxiety and low variation of depression scores among women with low anxiety, what assumption of a Pearson’s Correlation is violated in this data?
Correct!
homoscedasticity of variance
bivariate normality
normal distributions
no assumptions are violated
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
What kind of variables are needed for a Pearson’s Correlation?
Correct!
two quantitative
two categorical
one quantitative and one categorical
any two variables
The Null Hypothesis And You
- Points30
- Questions10
- Time Limit45 Minutes
- Allowed Attempts Unlimited
Instructions
The quiz:
- Covers the Textbookmaterial from Module 3: .
- Contains10 multiple-choice
- Is limitedto 45 minutes.
- Allows unlimited attempts and the highest attempt will count towards the grade.
- Is worth 30 points.
Attempt | Time | Score | |
KEPT | Attempt 2 | ||
LATEST | Attempt 2 | ||
Attempt 1 |
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
What can we know from our results of a study that we have failed to reject the null hypothesis?
Correct!
the sample means were not statistically different from one another
we have committed Type II error
the theoretical population are not different from one another
there was no sampling error
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
Which of these is an acceptable interpretation of a non-significant outcome in research?
Correct!
researchers should fail to reject the null hypothesis
the null hypothesis should be accepted
the null hypothesis should be rejected
results must be incorrect
Question 3
0 / 3 pts
A Type II error occurs if:
You Answered
researchers reject the null hypothesis when they should not have rejected it
Correct Answer
researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when they should have rejected it
researchers reject the null hypothesis when they should have rejected it
researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when they should not have rejected it
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
If the nominal alpha is set to .05, what p value would be considered statistically significant?
Correct!
.022
.22
2.2
22
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
A Type I error occurs if:
Correct!
researchers reject the null hypothesis when they should not have rejected it
researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when they should have rejected it
researchers reject the null hypothesis when they should have rejected it
researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis when they should not have rejected it
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
If nominal alpha is set to .01, which of these p values would be considered criteria for rejecting the null hypothesis?
Correct!
.009
.03
.04
.042
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
When we fail to reject the null hypothesis we:
Correct!
claim there is no difference
reject the null hypothesis
reject the alternative hypothesis
claim there is a difference
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
The advantage of using Cohen’s d is that it provides a difference in group means based on the:
Correct!
standard deviation of the scores
units of measurement for the scores
variance of the scores
outliers of the scores
Question 9
0 / 3 pts
When we reject the null hypothesis we:
Correct Answer
claim there is a difference
reject the real hypothesis
claim there is no difference
You Answered
reject the alternative hypothesis
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
What can lead to a large difference between a population mean and a sample mean?
Correct!
sampling error
random sampling
an incorrect alpha level
a small test statistic
Basics Of Statistics
- Points30
- Questions10
- Time Limit45 Minutes
- Allowed AttemptsUnlimited
Instructions
The quiz:
- Covers the Textbookmaterial from Module 2.
- Contains10 multiple-choice
- Is limitedto 45 minutes.
- Allowsunlimited attempts and the highest attempt will count towards the grade.
- Is worth 30 points.
Attempt History
Attempt | Time | Score | |
LATEST | Attempt 1 |
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
Which of the following is needed to calculate confidence interval’s upper limit?
Correct!
SEM
SS
each score value
s2
Question 2
0 / 3 pts
In order to calculate the mean you must:
Correct Answer
have at least interval level of measurement
You Answered
divide by degrees of freedom
take the square root of the sum
multiply each score by itself
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
The standard error of the mean is conceptually similar to:
Correct!
the standard deviation
variance
sum of squared deviations
causal inference
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
The t distribution and the z distribution are:
Correct!
symmetrical
random
leptokurtic
biased
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
A statistic of the sample is an estimate of:
Correct!
the parameter in the theoretical population
the statistic in the second sample
the parameter in the theoretical sample
the parameter in the second sample
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
For every statistic (e.g., mean) a researcher calculates in her sample, she is estimating that same value in the:
Correct!
population
second sample
experimental sample
distribution
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
All of the following calculations are necessary for calculating s except for:
Correct!
t critical
mean
sum of squared deviations
variance
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
We use a t critical when the population is:
Correct!
theoretical
known
skewed
biased
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
z and t distributions are known because:
Correct!
statisticians developed\discovered them
Karl Pearson developed them
they have always been
they measure variance
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
When different sets of data of the same size are randomly chosen from a population, the resulting variation in values is called:
Correct!
sampling error
standard deviation
magnitude of error
confidence interval
Basics Of Research Results for Dawn Long
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
Stratified random sampling is used to ensure:rect!
representation of groups indicative of the population
ethicality
randomization
similar groups
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
In recent years, many statisticians have argued
for looser application of measurement requirements
for stricter adherence to the four levels of measurement
that there is only one level of measurement
that Likert scales should be avoided
Question 3
0 / 3 pts
What is the simpler distinction between measurement levels that is common among contemporary statisticians?
correct Answer
categorical and quantitative
You Answered
nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio
quantitative and qualitative
individual, group, race, and type
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
What does it mean if a sample is “representative”?
Correct!
it has similar characteristics as the population
it is unique
it is ethical
it is a convenience sample
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
The degree to which a study supports a causal relationship is:
Correct!
internal validity
construct validity
discriminant validity
external validity
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
What is a biased sample?
Correct!
a sample that is systematically different from the population
a sample of people with strong opinions
a sample that has uneven groups
a sample that produces results that meet the expectations of researchers
Question 7
0 / 3 pts
Which of these is NOT a typical part of an experiment?
Correct Answer
manipulation of mediators
random assignment of participants to groups
two or more treatments, dosage levels, or interventions
You Answered
assessment of the outcome variable
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
The main purpose of using random assignment in a research study is to:
Correct!
increase the ability to make cause-effect inferences between variable
increase the external validity of a study
increase the ability to generalize the results of a study to a larger population
make the sample resemble the population as closely as possible
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
What percentage of scores are within three standard deviations from the mean?
Correct!
99.72
95.44
68.26
34.13
Question 10
0 / 3 pts
Approximately two-thirds of all values in the standard normal distribution fall within how many standard deviations of the mean?
Correct Answer
1
6
You Answered
3
2.5
Calculus Question
I’m working on a calculus test / quiz prep and need support to help me understand better.
I have a calculus 2 Exam. I need someone to help me with the exam. the answer must be handwritten. duration 1.5 hr. I will upload the exam in pdf.