• DueNov

 

• Points

 

• Questions20

 

• Time LimitNone

Instructions

Remember:

• When you are ready, click on the “Take the Quiz” button below to get started (you may need to scroll to see the “Take the Quiz” button).

Notes:

Quizzes in this course include multiple choice, true/false, matching and short answer questions stemming directly from the assigned readings. Students can access each quiz one time. Please complete all assigned readings in advance of starting the quiz.

Attempt History

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LATEST	Attempt 1	minutes	out of 20

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Question 1

1 / 1 pts

Contemporary research suggests that the storm-and-stress notion of adolescence is

 

1. A) much worse for boys than for girls.

 

 

1. B) understated.

 

 

1. C) much worse for girls than for boys.

 

Correct!

 

1. D) exaggerated.

 

 

Question 2

1 / 1 pts

Sleep-deprived adolescents

 

1. A) perform better on cognitive tasks in the morning hours.

 

Correct!

 

1. B) are more likely to suffer from anxiety and depression.

 

 

1. C) are less likely to engage in high-risk behaviors.

 

 

1. D) display increases in executive function.

 

 

Question 3

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements about sex differences in adolescents’ reactions to pubertal changes is true?

 

1. A) While most boys get some information from their mothers, almost all girls get their information from reading material or websites.

 

Correct!

 

1. B) Overall, boys get much less social support than girls for the physical changes of puberty.

 

 

1. C) A few girls tell a friend that they are menstruating, but more boys tell a friend about spermarche.

 

 

1. D) Girls, but not boys, are likely to benefit from opportunities to ask questions and discuss feelings with a sympathetic parent or health professional.

 

 

Question 4

1 / 1 pts

About _____ percent of North American and Western European teenage girls are affected by anorexia nervosa.

Correct!

 

1. A) 1

 

 

1. B) 3

 

 

1. C) 5

 

 

1. D) 7

 

 

Question 5

1 / 1 pts

Despite the prevailing image of sexually free adolescents, North American teens have

 

1. A) very open sexual attitudes.

 

 

1. B) a more open attitude toward homosexuality.

 

 

1. C) little or no information about sex.

 

Correct!

 

1. D) relatively restrictive sexual attitudes.

 

 

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements about homosexuality is true?

Correct Answer

 

1. A) Attraction to members of the same sex is not limited to teens who identify as lesbian, gay, or bisexual.

 

You Answered

 

1. B) Most homosexual adolescents are “gender-deviant” in dress and behavior.

 

 

1. C) About 85 percent of adolescents who report having engaged in homosexual acts identify as homosexual.

 

 

1. D) Researchers have yet to identify a link between heredity and homosexuality.

 

 

Question 7

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements about adolescent mothers is true?

 

1. A) Most experience serious birth complications.

 

 

1. B) Most receive state-mandated child support payments from the father.

 

 

1. C) They are less likely to divorce if they do marry.

 

Correct!

 

1. D) Very few give up their infants for adoption.

 

 

Question 8

1 / 1 pts

In Canada and Western Europe, where community- and school-based clinics offer adolescents contraceptives and where universal health insurance helps pay for them, __________ than in the United States.

 

1. A) teenage sexual activity is much higher

 

 

1. B) teenage sexual activity is much lower

 

 

1. C) pregnancy, childbirth, and abortion rates are much higher

 

Correct!

 

1. D) pregnancy, childbirth, and abortion rates are much lower

 

 

Question 9

1 / 1 pts

According to Piaget, around age 11, young people enter the formal operational stage of development, in which they

 

1. A) are strongly motivated to experiment with new memory strategies.

 

 

1. B) require concrete things and events as objects of thought.

 

 

1. C) cannot separate the effects of variables in problem solving.

 

Correct!

 

1. D) are able to come up with new, general logical rules through internal reflection.

 

 

Question 10

1 / 1 pts

Certain that others are observing and thinking about them, teenagers develop an inflated sense of their own importance known as

 

1. A) the imaginary audience.

 

Correct!

 

1. B) the personal fable.

 

 

1. C) metacognition.

 

 

1. D) hypothetico-deductive reasoning.

 

 

Question 11

1 / 1 pts

Research on mathematical abilities in adolescence shows that

Correct!

 

1. A) American boys and girls reach advanced levels of high school math study in equal proportions.

 

 

1. B) American boys are three times as likely as girls to reach advanced levels of high school math study.

 

 

1. C) American girls are twice as likely as boys to reach advanced levels of high school math study.

 

 

1. D) most parents believe that boys and girls are equally skilled at advanced math.

 

 

Question 12

1 / 1 pts

According to Erikson, teenagers in complex societies experience

 

1. A) few identity conflicts.

 

 

1. B) role confusion when they form mature identities.

 

 

1. C) a rapid decline in self-esteem.

 

Correct!

 

1. D) an identity crisis.

 

 

Question 13

1 / 1 pts

Michael is a young adult who is trying out life possibilities, gathering important information about himself and his environment, and moving toward making enduring decisions. In doing so, Michael is probably

 

1. A) identity foreclosed.

 

 

1. B) having an identity crisis.

 

 

1. C) in moratorium.

 

Correct!

 

1. D) forging an organized self-structure.

 

 

Question 14

1 / 1 pts

Roni is an adolescent immigrant from a collectivist culture. The longer his family has been in the United States, the lesser Roni feels committed to obeying his parents and fulfilling family obligations. As a result, Roni may experience

Correct!

 

1. A) acculturative stress.

 

 

1. B) bicultural avoidance.

 

 

1. C) ethnic-identity foreclosure.

 

 

1. D) ethnic-identity moratorium.

 

 

Question 15

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements about Lawrence Kohlberg’s well-known “Heinz dilemma” is true?

 

1. A) Kohlberg emphasized that it is the content of the response that determines moral maturity.

 

 

1. B) Given a choice between obeying the law and preserving individual rights, the most advanced moral thinkers focus on avoidance of punishment as a reason for behaving morally.

 

Correct!

 

1. C) Kohlberg emphasized that it is the way an individual reasons about the dilemma, not the content of the response, that determines moral maturity.

 

 

1. D) Kohlberg noted that females more than males tended to emphasize obeying the law over the value of human life.

 

 

Question 16

1 / 1 pts

Carol Gilligan believes that feminine morality

 

1. A) is adequately represented in Kohlberg’s theory.

 

 

1. B) tends to be less mature than male morality.

 

Correct!

 

1. C) emphasizes an “ethic of care” that Kohlberg’s system devalues.

 

 

1. D) is overemphasized in research on moral development.

 

 

Question 17

1 / 1 pts

As Lucinda enters adolescence, she begins to worry about walking, talking, eating, dressing, and laughing in ways consistent with a feminine gender role. Lucinda is experiencing

Correct!

 

1. A) gender intensification.

 

 

1. B) identity diffusion.

 

 

1. C) gender-role confusion.

 

 

1. D) identity moratorium.

 

 

Question 18

1 / 1 pts

Mild family conflict

 

1. A) is associated with a rise in antisocial behavior, particularly for older adolescents.

 

 

1. B) often escalates into intense parent–child disagreements and a sharp rise in sibling rivalry.

 

Correct!

 

1. C) informs parents of the changing needs and expectations of their children, signaling a need for adjustments in the parent–child relationship.

 

 

1. D) interferes with adolescent autonomy and identity development and predicts long-term adjustment problems.

 

 

Question 19

1 / 1 pts

Teenagers in the United States spend more time together outside the classroom than teenagers in Europe and Asia because

 

1. A) European and Asian parents put strict limits on their children’s free time.

 

Correct!

 

1. B) U.S. teenagers experience a shorter school year and less demanding academic standards.

 

 

1. C) the United States has fewer public gathering places for teens.

 

 

1. D) there is greater flexibility in school hours in Europe and Asia.

 

 

Question 20

1 / 1 pts

The most common psychological problem of adolescence is

 

1. A) anorexia.

 

Correct!

 

1. B) depression.

 

 

1. C) bulimia.

 

 

1. D) delinquency.

 

• Due

 

• Points

 

• Questions

 

• Available

 

• Time Limit

Attempt History

	Attempt	Time	Score
LATEST	Attempt 1

Correct answers

Score for this quiz:

Submitted

This attempt took

 

Question 1

1 / 1 pts

“Survival of the fittest” may be a misleading phrase to describe the process of evolution by natural selection, because:

 

Reproductive success, on its own, does not necessarily guarantee evolution

 

 

It is impossible to determine the fittest individuals in nature

 

 

Natural variation in a population is generally too great to be influenced by differential survival

 

 

Survival matters less to natural selection than does reproductive success

 

 

Question 2

1 / 1 pts

Is the following description of how giraffes evolved long necks reasonable based on the ideas of evolution by transformation?

Giraffes have long necks because they needed to reach food high in the trees. Each individual giraffe stretched to reach the highest leaves possible and developed a longer neck. Over many generations the population of giraffes had a longer and longer average neck length.

 

Yes

 

 

No

 

 

Question 3

1 / 1 pts

Prokaryotes are classified into _________ domain(s).

 

5

 

 

1

 

 

3

 

 

2

 

 

Question 4

1 / 1 pts

Thousands (or even tens of thousands) of different traits make up an individual. For this reason:

 

Knowing a person’s phenotype is insufficient for determining his or her genotype

 

The environment must influence more than half of our traits

 

 

All genes must be pleiotropic

 

 

In a species with 23 different chromosomes, some traits must be coded for by genes on the same chromosome

 

 

Question 5

1 / 1 pts

In a set of classic experiments performed in the early 1950s , Urey and Miller subjected an experimental system composed of H2, CH4 (methane), NH3 (ammonia), and water to electrical sparks. A few days later, they found in their system:

 

Cells

 

 

DNA

 

 

Amino Acids

 

 

Microspheres

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 6

0 / 1 pts

Which of these is most closely related according to the below figure?

 

1. neanderthalisand H. habilis

 

1. habilis and H. sapiens

 

1. floresiensis and H. erectus

 

Australopithecus and H. floresiensis

 

Question 7

1 / 1 pts

Crossing over ______________.

 

Occurs during mitosis and is when genes inherited from one parent switch places with genes from another parent

 

 

Occurs during mitosis and is the main reason offspring of asexual reproduction are genetically identical

 

 

Occurs during meiosis and is the main reason offspring of asexual reproduction are genetically identical

 

 

Occurs during meiosis and is when genes inherited from one parent switch places with genes from another parent

 

 

Question 8

1 / 1 pts

Which of these is not one of the domains of life?

 

Eukarya

 

 

Archaea

 

 

Protista

 

 

Bacteria

 

 

Question 9

1 / 1 pts

In a pedigree, a circle with a square that is shaded refers to ______________.

 

A female with a trait of interest

 

 

A male that does not have the trait of interest

 

 

A male with a trait of interest

 

 

A female that does not have the trait of interest

 

 

Question 10

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following scenarios would best facilitate adaptive radiation?

 

A population of cheetahs goes through an event in which all genetic diversity in the population is wiped out

 

 

A population of birds becomes stranded on an island archipelago

 

 

Darker colored moths have a selective advantage over lighter-colored moths due to industrial soot on trees

 

 

A population of birds native to an island archipelago is forced to relocate to the mainland by a storm

 

 

Question 11

1 / 1 pts

The mass extinction that occurred on earth 65 million years ago was immediately followed by:

 

The rise of the reptiles, including the dinosaurs

 

 

the emergence of the first non-photosynthetic organisms

 

 

The rapid divergence and radiation of modern mammals

 

 

The rise of archaea

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 12

0 / 1 pts

Many biologists do not consider viruses to be alive. Which of the following characteristics of viruses leads to this conclusion?

 

Viruses are unable to reproduce on their own

 

 

All of these

 

 

Viruses do not respond to external stimuli

 

 

Viruses lack a metabolic system

 

 

Question 13

1 / 1 pts

A woman with type B blood and a man with type A blood could have children with which of the following phenotypes?

 

A, B, or O only

 

 

AB or O only

 

 

AB only

 

 

A, B, AB, or O

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 14

0 / 1 pts

The biological species concept doesn’t work for ________.

 

Asexually reproducing organisms or fossils

 

 

Humans

 

 

Asexually reproducing organisms

 

 

Fossils

 

 

Question 15

1 / 1 pts

For each cell that undergoes meiosis what is the final outcome?

 

Two genetically unique cells

 

 

Four genetically identical cells

 

 

Four genetically unique cells

 

 

Two genetically identical cells

 

 

Question 16

1 / 1 pts

What can be concluded from comparing differences in molecular biology among different species?

 

Birds are more closely related to humans than dogs are

 

 

Extremely different species are fundamentally unrelated in any way

 

 

Only DNA sequences can be used to compare species’ relatedness

 

Genetic similarities and differences demonstrate species relatedness

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 17

0 / 1 pts

Phylogenetic trees should be viewed as:

 

True genealogical relationships among species

 

 

Representation of allopatric speciation events

 

 

Intellectual exercises, not to be interpreted literally

 

 

Hypotheses regarding evolutionary relationships among groups of organisms

 

 

Question 18

1 / 1 pts

The following explanation of evolution of flight in bats doesn’t demonstrate a proper understanding of evolution by natural selection. Why not?

Bats would be better adapted if they had wings, so gradually they developed them. Bats in each generation had better wings than their parents did.

 

Future generations would not have better wings, on average, than their parents

 

 

Evolution happens suddenly, not gradually

 

 

Traits do not evolve because they would be useful, random mutations are needed

 

 

Natural selection only works in small populations and the bat population is large

 

 

Question 19

1 / 1 pts

When a small group of individuals colonizes a new habitat, an evolutionary event is likely to occur, because:

 

Gene flow increases

 

 

Small founding populations are rarely genetically representative of the initial population

 

 

New environments tend to be inhospitable, reducing survival there

 

 

Members of a small population have reduced rates of mating

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 20

0 / 1 pts

Using a light microscope , it is easiest to see chromosomes:

 

During asexual reproduction

 

 

During interphase, when they are concentrated in the nucleus

 

 

During mitosis and meiosis , because the condensed chromosomes are thicker and therefore more prominent

 

 

During interphase, because they are uncoiled and more linear

 

 

Question 21

1 / 1 pts

Most genes come in alternative forms called:

 

Alleles

 

 

Chromosomes

 

 

Heterozygotes

 

 

Gametes

 

 

Question 22

1 / 1 pts

All of the offspring of a black hen and a white rooster are gray. The simplest explanation for this pattern of inheritance is:

 

Sex linkage

 

 

Incomplete heterozygosity

 

 

Multiple alleles

 

 

Incomplete dominance

 

 

Question 23

1 / 1 pts

What biological sex will an individual with an XXXY karyotype be?

 

Both

 

 

Female

 

 

Neither

 

 

Male

 

 

Question 24

1 / 1 pts

In a plant species, purple flowers are dominant to white. What will the phenotypes be in the offspring of the following cross: PP x Pp?

 

3/4 purple, 1/4 white flowers

 

 

All Pp

 

 

All purple flowers

 

 

All light purple flowers

 

 

Question 25

1 / 1 pts

If you are crossing two peas – Rr x rr – where R is a round pea and r is a wrinkled pea:

What fraction of the offspring will be round? Is “round” the genotype or the phenotype?

 

0 genotype

 

 

All phenotype

 

 

1/2 phenotype

 

 

All genotype

 

 

Question 26

1 / 1 pts

The following explanation of the evolution of flight in bats doesn’t demonstrate a proper understanding of natural selection – why not?

The rodent-like ancestors of bats kept stretching their skin and arms while jumping from tree branch to tree branch because that would help them glide better and jump farther. Gradually, through the continued use of their arms in this way, they developed wings.

 

It would be impossible for bats to evolve from rodent-like ancestors

 

 

Stretching their arms will not cause a genetic change, so this trait can not be passed on to offspring

 

 

Gliding and flying are different and one could not lead to the other

 

 

Question 27

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following is true?

 

Both genetic drift and gene flow require population size to be small in order to impact the allele frequencies

 

 

With the founder effect individuals are leaving one population to begin a new population elsewhere

 

 

With the founder effect, individuals are moving from one existing population to another

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 28

0 / 1 pts

In the figure below what is the most recent common ancestor between H. neanderthalensis and H. sapiens?

 

Australopithecus

 

1. heidelbergensis

 

1. neanderthalensis

 

1. floresiensis

 

Question 29

1 / 1 pts

Asexual Reproduction __________________

 

Involves two parents and produces offspring that are genetically identical

 

 

Involves one parent and produces offspring that are genetically unique

 

 

Involves one parent and produces offspring that are genetically identical

 

 

Involves two parents and produces offspring that are genetically unique

 

 

Question 30

1 / 1 pts

Pea plants were well suited for Mendel’s breeding experiments for all of the following reasons except:

 

Pea plants exhibit variations in an umber of observable characteristics, such as flower color and seed shape.

 

 

Pea plants have a particularly long generation time

 

 

Mendel could control the pollination between different pea plants

 

 

It is easy to obtain large numbers of offspring from any given cross

 

 

Question 31

1 / 1 pts

Selecting for increased starvation resistance in fruit flies:

 

Has little effect, because ongoing mutation counteracts any benefits from selection

 

 

Cannot increase their survival time, because there is no genetic variation for this trait

 

 

Has no effect, because starvation resistance is not a trait that influences fruit flies’ fitness

 

Can produce populations in which the average time to death from starvation is 160 hours

 

 

Question 32

1 / 1 pts

A karyotype of one of your skin cells would reveal a total of 46 chromosomes. How many of these are maternally inherited non-sex chromosomes?

 

22

 

 

20

 

 

23

 

 

46

 

 

Question 33

1 / 1 pts

Evolution:

 

Is responsible for the increased occurrence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria

 

 

Does not occur in human-occupied habitats

 

 

Can occur in the wild but not in the laboratory

 

 

Occurs too slowly to be observed

 

 

Question 34

1 / 1 pts

In animals, it is believed that the most common mode of speciation is:

 

Chromosomal

 

 

Allopatric

 

 

Directional

 

 

Autopolyploidy

 

 

Question 35

1 / 1 pts

The idea of punctuated equilibrium challenges which component of Darwin’s theory of evolution?

 

Steady change and species stasis

 

 

Species stasis and gradualism

 

 

Steady change and gradualism

 

 

None of these

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 36

0 / 1 pts

Adaptations shaped by natural selection:

 

May be out of date, having been shaped in the past under conditions that different from those in the present

 

 

Are magnified and enhanced through genetic drift

 

 

Represents perfect solutions to the problems posed by nature

 

 

Are unlikely to be present in humans living in industrial societies

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 37

0 / 1 pts

What happens to a zygote with the wrong number of autosomes?

 

None of these

 

 

It will develop into a male

 

 

It will develop into a female

 

 

It will likely experience a spontaneous miscarriage

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 38

0 / 1 pts

Most archaeal species:

 

are animal parasites

 

 

are beneficial to humans

 

 

are pathogenic

 

 

have yet to be discovered

 

 

Question 39

1 / 1 pts

What kind of molecule is thought to be the most likely to have been the first genetic material?

 

DNA

 

 

Carbohydrates

 

 

Protein

 

 

RNA

 

 

Question 40

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following groups would be placed nearest the fungi in an evolutionary tree based on DNA sequences?

 

Bacteria

 

 

Animals

 

 

Protists

 

 

Plants

 

 

Question 41

1 / 1 pts

Two flowers look very similar, but generally reproduce at different times during the year. One breeds in the summer and the other in the spring. Are these flowers different species?

 

Yes

 

 

No

 

 

Question 42

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following is the process for sex determination in turtles?

 

Sex is determined by whether the egg carries a W or Z chromosome

 

 

Sex is determined by whether the sperm carries an X or Y chromosome

 

 

Sex is determined by the number of chromosome sets an individual possesses

 

 

Sex is determined by the temperature at which the eggs are incubated

 

 

Question 43

1 / 1 pts

Sister chromatids are:

 

Homologous chromosomes

 

 

The result of crossing over

 

 

Identical molecules of DNA resulting from replication

 

 

Produced in meiosis but not in mitosis

 

 

Question 44

1 / 1 pts

The genetic information in all viruses is:

 

RNA

 

 

Protein

 

 

DNA

 

 

DNA or RNA

 

 

Question 45

1 / 1 pts

No karyotype has ever shown a person to have one Y chromosome and no X chromosome. Why?

 

The X chromosome contains genes that are essential for life.

 

 

Individuals are probably born with this karyotype, but have such slight phenotypic abnormalities that they live out their lives normally and are unaware of this genetic anomaly

 

 

Genes on the Y chromosome are expressed only when an X chromosome is present

 

 

A karyotype would not reveal such an abnormality

 

 

Question 46

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following refers to the unicellular stage of development

 

Baby

 

 

Embryo

 

 

Zygote

 

 

Fetus

 

 

Question 47

1 / 1 pts

Does the following explanation of the evolution of flight in bats demonstrate a proper understanding of natural selection?

Bats would be better adapted if they had wings, so gradually they developed them. Bats in each generation had better wings than their parents did.

 

Yes

 

 

No

 

 

Question 48

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements about antibiotics is incorrect?

 

Penicillin was the first antibiotics widely used to fight bacterial infections

 

 

Antibiotics help microbes compete with other microbes

 

 

Antibiotics are used not just in human health care but also in agriculture

 

 

Antibiotics, though effective against viruses, are not effective against bacteria

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 49

0 / 1 pts

In a fish population in a shallow stream, the genotypic frequencies of yellowish-brown fish and greenish-brown fish changed significantly after a flash flood randomly swept away fish from the stream. This change in genotypic frequency was most likely attributable to:

 

Disruptive Selection

 

 

Directional Selection

 

 

Gene Flow

 

 

Genetic Drift

 

 

Question 50

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements about mutations is incorrect?

 

Most mutations are harmful or neutral for the organism in which they occur

 

 

All of these statements are correct

 

 

A mutation is any change in an organism’s DNA

 

The origin of genetic variation is mutation

 

• Due

 

• Points20

 

• Questions20

 

• Time LimitNone

Instructions

Remember:

• When you are ready, click on the “Take the Quiz” button below to get started (you may need to scroll to see the “Take the Quiz” button).

Notes:

Quizzes in this course include multiple choice, true/false, matching and short answer questions stemming directly from the assigned readings. Students can access each quiz one time. Please complete all assigned readings in advance of starting the quiz.

Attempt History

	Attempt	Time	Score
LATEST	Attempt 1

Score for this quiz:

Submitted

This attempt took.

 

Question 1

1 / 1 pts

By age 4, intelligence tests are good predictors of later IQ and academic achievement.

 

True

 

Correct!

 

False

 

 

Question 2

1 / 1 pts

Good child care enhances cognitive, language, and social development, especially for low-SES children.

Correct!

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

Question 3

1 / 1 pts

Most theories of moral development agree that at first, a child’s morality is

 

regulated by inner standards.

 

 

motivated by a fear of retribution.

 

 

driven by compassionate concern.

 

Correct!

 

externally controlled by adults.

 

 

Question 4

1 / 1 pts

Research reveals that inductive discipline

 

fails to provide children with information about how to behave in future situations.

 

Correct!

 

helps children notice others’ feelings and points out the effects of children’s misbehavior on others.

 

 

discourages the development of empathy and sympathy.

 

 

encourages children to comply with rules in order to avoid the loss of parental love.

 

 

Question 5

1 / 1 pts

Preschoolers distinguish __________, which protect people’s rights and welfare, from __________, which do not violate rights and are up to the individual.

 

social conventions; moral imperatives

 

 

matters of personal choice; social conventions

 

Correct!

 

moral imperatives; matters of personal choice

 

 

moral imperatives; social conventions

 

 

Question 6

1 / 1 pts

During early childhood, children’s gender-stereotyped beliefs

 

emerge slowly, as parents treat boys and girls in similar ways.

 

Correct!

 

strengthen so much that many children apply them as blanket rules that should not be violated.

 

 

are highly flexible with respect to clothing and hairstyle but less so with respect to types of play.

 

 

are flexible until about age 5, after which they become more rigid.

 

 

Question 7

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following preschoolers is most likely to be shunned by agemates?

Correct!

 

a boy who wears nail polish

 

 

a boy who plays with building blocks

 

 

a girl who wears cowboy boots

 

 

a girl who enjoys art

 

 

Question 8

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements is supported by research on sex differences in aggression?

Correct!

 

Although girls have a reputation for being both more verbally and relationally aggressive than boys, the sex difference is small.

 

 

Contrary to popular belief, girls are more physically aggressive than boys during the preschool years.

 

 

Girls are significantly more likely than boys to engage in verbal and relational aggression.

 

 

Throughout early and middle childhood, girls tend to inflict harm in more variable ways than boys do.

 

 

Question 9

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements is supported by research on viewing television violence?

 

Violent programming creates short-term increases in aggression, but does not have long-term negative consequences.

 

Correct!

 

Aggressive children have a greater appetite for violent TV programming than nonaggressive children.

 

 

Older children are more likely than preschool and young school-age children to imitate TV violence.

 

 

Violent television only has a negative effect on children who are already highly aggressive.

 

 

Question 10

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following is one reason the United States lags behind Denmark, Norway, Great Britain, Sweden, the Netherlands, and Canada in immunizations?

 

1. A) Uninsured U.S. children do not receive free immunizations.

 

 

1. B) Childhood diseases have been virtually eradicated in the United States, making immunization unnecessary.

 

Correct!

 

1. C) Many U.S. children do not have access to the health care they need.

 

 

1. D) More U.S. parents are aware that immunizations cause autism.

 

 

Question 11

1 / 1 pts

Vygotsky saw __________ as the foundation for all higher cognitive processes.

 

1. A) egocentrism

 

Correct!

 

1. B) language

 

 

1. C) sensorimotor activity

 

 

1. D) self-reflection

 

 

Question 12

1 / 1 pts

One reason that gains in IQ and achievement test scores from attending Head Start quickly dissolve is that many of the children

Correct!

 

1. A) enter low-quality public schools.

 

 

1. B) have to repeat grades in elementary school.

 

 

1. C) drop out of school before graduating.

 

 

1. D) are unable to keep up with the homework demands in grade school.

 

 

Question 13

1 / 1 pts

According to Erikson, one of the major functions of play is to allow children to

 

1. A) escape from the demands of their lives into a fantasy world.

 

Correct!

 

1. B) try out new skills with little risk of criticism or failure.

 

 

1. C) show their caregivers the things that are important to them.

 

 

1. D) represent their unconscious wishes and desires symbolically.

 

 

Question 14

1 / 1 pts

Emotional competence

 

1. A) develops from repeated experiences with failure.

 

 

1. B) results in a decline in self-conscious emotions.

 

 

1. C) is influenced more by biology than the environment.

 

Correct!

 

1. D) is vital for successful peer relationships and overall mental health.

 

 

Question 15

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following preschoolers is most likely to be shunned by agemates?

Correct!

 

1. A) a boy who wears nail polish

 

 

1. B) a boy who plays with building blocks

 

 

1. C) a girl who wears cowboy boots

 

 

1. D) a girl who enjoys art

 

 

Question 16

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements about the consequences of obesity in middle childhood is true?

 

1. A) Obese boys are viewed more negatively by adults and peers than obese girls.

 

 

1. B) In most cases, obese children slim down by adolescence.

 

Correct!

 

1. C) Obese children are stereotyped as lazy, self-doubting, and deceitful.

 

 

1. D) Due to growing public awareness, childhood obesity in the U.S. has declined by 30 percent in the last decade.

 

 

Question 17

1 / 1 pts

Throughout elementary and secondary school, __________ predicts academic success

 

1. A) learned helplessness

 

 

1. B) metacognitive awareness

 

Correct!

 

1. C) self-regulation

 

 

1. D) interpersonal intelligence

 

 

Question 18

1 / 1 pts

A major reason that sustained attention improves in the preschool years is

Correct!

 

1. A) a steady gain in children’s ability to inhibit impulses and keep their mind on a competing goal.

 

 

1. B) that adults use scaffolding to help children focus on one task at a time.

 

 

1. C) that children become increasingly bored by novelty.

 

 

1. D) that children become better at distinguishing appearance from reality.

 

 

Question 19

1 / 1 pts

Adoption studies reveal that

 

1. A) adopted children show a significant decline in IQ across middle childhood and adolescence, regardless of rearing conditions.

 

 

1. B) children of low-IQ biological mothers do as well as children with high-IQ biological mothers when placed in similar adoptive homes.

 

 

1. C) genetic factors play a much greater role in IQ than environmental factors.

 

Correct!

 

1. D) when children of low-IQ mothers are adopted at birth by parents who are well above average in income and education, they score above average in IQ during the school years.

 

 

Question 20

1 / 1 pts

When children adopt teachers’ views of them and start living up to them, this is called “educational self-fulfilling prophesy.”

Correct!

 

True

 

 

False

 

• Question 1

5 out of 5 points

	​Most of the water moving into a leaf is lost through ____.
	Selected Answer: d. ​transpiration Correct Answer: d. ​transpiration

• Question 2

5 out of 5 points

	​What tissue is found within a leaf vein?
	Selected Answer: c. ​xylem Correct Answer: c. ​xylem

• Question 3

5 out of 5 points

	​What compound diffuses through open stomata into plant tissues thereby initiating photosynthesis?
	Selected Answer: a. ​carbon dioxide Correct Answer: a. ​carbon dioxide

• Question 4

5 out of 5 points

	​Among the following substances contaminating Aberdeen Proving Ground in Maryland, which is an organic compound that damages the nervous system, liver, and lungs?
	Selected Answer: b. ​trichloroethylene Correct Answer: b. ​trichloroethylene

• Question 5

5 out of 5 points

	​Movement of soluble organic material through plants is known as ____.
	Selected Answer: a. ​translocation Correct Answer: a. ​translocation

• Question 6

5 out of 5 points

	​What complex polysaccharide imparts flexibility to the unevenly thickened cell walls of collenchyma cells?
	Selected Answer: a. ​pectin Correct Answer: a. ​pectin

• Question 7

5 out of 5 points

	​The “eyes” of a potato are ____.
	Selected Answer: b. ​nodes Correct Answer: b. ​nodes

• Question 8

0 out of 5 points

	Which substance forces water to enter endodermal cells in the root, rather than going around them?
	Selected Answer: d. starch Correct Answer: b. lignin

• Question 9

5 out of 5 points

	​Which of the following cells are alive at maturity?
	Selected Answer: e. ​sieve tube members Correct Answer: e. ​sieve tube members

• Question 10

5 out of 5 points

	​In a shoot, where is the apical meristem located?
	Selected Answer: e. ​in the terminal bud Correct Answer: e. ​in the terminal bud

• Question 11

5 out of 5 points

	​Which of the following plant cells has a companion cell?
	Selected Answer: b. ​sieve elements Correct Answer: b. ​sieve elements Selected Answer: b. ​sieve elements Correct Answer: b. ​sieve elements Question 12 5 out of 5 points What structures allow water to move laterally and vertically through xylem cells? Selected Answer: c. ​pits in the cell walls Correct Answer: c. ​pits in the cell walls Question 13 5 out of 5 points ​The stalk that supports the individual eudicot leaf is the ____. Selected Answer: a. ​petiole Correct Answer: a. ​petiole Question 14 5 out of 5 points According to the pressure flow explanation of phloem transport, the source region – is most often the ____. Selected Answer: b. leaf Correct Answer: b. leaf Question 15 5 out of 5 points ​Annual growth rings are formed in woody stems principally through the activities of the ____. Selected Answer: b. ​vascular cambium Correct Answer: b. ​vascular cambium Question 16 5 out of 5 points ​What is another term for periderm and all other living dead tissues outside the cylinder of vascular cambium? Selected Answer: a. ​bark Correct Answer: a. ​bark Question 17 5 out of 5 points ​Stomata ____. Selected Answer: c. ​allow the movement of gases into and out of plants Correct Answer: c. ​allow the movement of gases into and out of plants Question 18 5 out of 5 points ​The veins of leaves are used for ____. Selected Answer: b. ​transport of water and nutrients Correct Answer: b. ​transport of water and nutrients Question 19 5 out of 5 points Which theory of water transport states that hydrogen bonding allows water molecules to maintain a continuous fluid column as water is pulled from roots to leaves? Selected Answer: b. cohesion–tension Correct Answer: b. cohesion–tension Question 20 0 out of 5 points What is responsible for creating the large holes in the sieve plates of phloem cells? Selected Answer: a. translocation of organic molecules Correct Answer: c. enlargement of plasmodesmata

1 / 1 pts

Professional athletes can gain a competitive advantage by living at altitudes over ______________ .

 

1mile

 

 

2400 meters

 

 

5284 feet

 

 

2400 feet

 

 

Question 2

1 / 1 pts

Barnacle penis length and width is able to change based on the environment that the barnacle is present in. This is referred to as: ______________________

 

Genotypic Plasticity

 

 

Sexual Competition

 

 

Precise Proportions

 

 

Phenotypic Plasticity

 

 

Question 3

1 / 1 pts

The bird previously known for having the longest migration, before scientists established that its travel distance was beneath that of the arctic tern, tops out at a ______________________ trip.

 

1,500 miles

 

 

52,000 mile

 

 

40,000 mile

 

 

20,000 mile

 

 

Question 4

1 / 1 pts

What is perhaps the most important variable in determining a regions climate?

 

The Sun

 

 

Precipitation

 

 

The Moon

 

 

Temperature

 

 

Question 5

1 / 1 pts

The stratosphere acts like a _______________ causing the warm air to spread out and separate, which ultimately forms the arid climate in deserts.

 

ceiling

 

 

roof

 

 

drain

 

 

pump

 

 

Question 6

1 / 1 pts

The landscape around Mount Saint Helens was initially dominated by flowering lupin plants, but these were creating new soil that was an appropriate habitat for the Sitka Willow. If this is the case, why was the willows’ growth still stunted?

 

The soil is still too acidic

 

 

A native species of weevil

 

 

Birds

 

 

An invasive species of weevil

 

 

Question 7

1 / 1 pts

As the overall climate of the planet continues to increase, many organisms’ ranges are changing. One example is that of mountains, where organisms that can move ____________________ the mountain, whereas others ____________ their habitable zone.

 

farther up; lose

 

 

farther down; gain

 

 

farther up; gain

 

 

farther down; lose

 

 

Question 8

1 / 1 pts

The yields of two crucial crops _______________ and ______________ are decreasing due to the changes in global climate.

 

wheat; soybeans

 

 

wheat; corn

 

 

soybeans; corn

 

 

soybeans; potatos

 

 

Question 9

1 / 1 pts

Asian carp were imported to America to clean catfish breeding ponds, but they escaped into the Mississippi River. Now there is only a(n) _________________________ keeping the Asian carp from invading the Great Lakes outside of Chicago.

 

group of zealous fisherman

 

 

species of predatory birds

 

 

series of electric barriers

 

 

electric eel population

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 10

0 / 1 pts

Because of tropical deforestation alone what is the approximate number of species lost per year?

(According to Tony Juniper who is an environmentalist. Fun fact, the number he cites isn’t really reflective of reality. Always google the “experts”!)

 

3,000

 

 

100

 

 

27,000

 

 

10

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 11

0 / 1 pts

Edward Ngai appreciates nature and natural biodiversity because of its ____________ properties.

 

intrinsic

 

 

green

 

 

extrinsic

 

 

No answer text provided.

 

 

Question 12

1 / 1 pts

A food chain starts with a(n) _____________

 

sun

 

 

primary energy source

 

 

energy source

 

 

producer

 

 

Question 13

1 / 1 pts

Only _______ of energy from trophic level 1 makes it to trophic level 2.

 

100%

 

 

1/10%

 

 

1%

 

 

10%

 

 

Question 14

1 / 1 pts

The branch of science that studies molecules containing carbon is called:

 

Inorganic Chemistry

 

 

Physics

 

 

Organic Chemistry

 

 

Biology

 

 

Question 15

1 / 1 pts

Nitrogen gas from the atmosphere needs to be “fixed” by __________ so that plants can use the nitrogen.

 

No answer text provided.

 

 

bugs

 

 

fungi

 

 

bacteria

 

 

Question 16

1 / 1 pts

Back in the ’30’s the US Government paid farmers to plant kudzu to prevent _____________

 

deforestation

 

 

erosion

 

 

the spread of Asian carp

 

 

root rot

 

 

Question 17

1 / 1 pts

David Lodge a biologist at the University of Notre Dame argues that the key to fighting invasive species is ____________

 

importing predators

 

 

increasing arrests of people releasing invasives

 

 

prevention

 

 

targeted hunting and fishing laws

 

 

Question 18

1 / 1 pts

Coral reefs and oysters are dying because of what change in ocean conditions tied to climate change?

 

Methane emissions

 

 

Increased Acidity

 

 

Decreased Acidity

 

 

Invasive Species

 

 

Question 19

1 / 1 pts

Because plants are not all equally effective at sequestering carbon dioxide, some plants will grow greater biomass than others at a higher rate. This response to a global increase of CO2 could lead to what?

 

erosion

 

 

plants will become more acidic

 

 

an increase in the number of plant species

 

 

a loss of biodiversity

 

 

Question 20

1 / 1 pts

When light energy from the sun hits the surface of the earth it takes on an extended wavelength known as infrared. Infrared could also be called:

 

heat energy

 

 

russet

 

 

ultraviolet waves

 

 

actinic emissions

 

 

Question 21

1 / 1 pts

Because the earth’s axis is tilted we experience seasonal variation. When a hemisphere is closest to the sun we call that:

 

summer

 

 

orbit

 

 

winter

 

 

a period of cooling

 

 

Question 22

1 / 1 pts

Areas north of the arctic circle are referred to as being in the:

 

middle latitudes

 

 

high latitudes

 

 

antarctic

 

 

tropics

 

 

Question 23

1 / 1 pts

Climactic regions are determined by ______________ and _________________.

 

temperature; precipitation

 

 

precipitation; gulf stream

 

 

sun exposure; precipitation

 

 

temperature; migration

 

 

Question 24

1 / 1 pts

At higher altitudes there is less _____________ available, so our bodies respond by producing more _______________

 

carbon dioxide; red blood cells

 

 

carbon dioxide; muscle mass

 

 

oxygen; red blood cells

 

 

oxygen; muscle mass

 

 

Question 25

1 / 1 pts

When Mount Saint Helen’s erupted how far did the damage reach?

 

2 miles

 

 

100 feet

 

 

13 miles

 

 

Globally

 

Quiz

 

Correct answers will be available .

Score for this quiz: 2.18 out of 3

Submitted

This attempt took

 

Question 1

0.27 / 0.27 pts

A sole proprietorship offers less flexibility than does a partnership or a corporation.

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 2

0 / 0.27 pts

Consider the following facts:  Bill sells Corner Deli, a sole proprietorship, to Debra. This transfer represents:

 

A transfer of the assets of a sole proprietorship

 

 

The formation of a franchise relationship

Not a transfer of ownership—the assets of a sole proprietorship cannot be transferred

 

 

The creation of a partnership between Bill and Debra

 

 

A transfer of ownership, so long as the other owners approve of the sale

 

 

Question 3

0.27 / 0.27 pts

Consider the following facts:  Big Green Clothing, Inc. gives notice to Neely that it is terminating their franchise arrangement. Winding up the business requires:

 

Payment from Big Green to Neely for the shares of stock she owned

 

 

A new franchise agreement

 

 

Nothing more than closing immediately

 

 

The return of the franchisor’s property

Neely’s death, disability, or insolvency

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 4

0 / 0.27 pts

On dissolution, the creditors of a partnership and the creditors of the individual partners can make claims on the partnership’s assets.

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

Question 5

0.27 / 0.27 pts

Consider the following facts:  Sara and Terry agree while talking on the phone to form a general partnership to enter into the business of real property management.  To be enforceable under the Statute of Frauds, their agreement must:

 

Not include any third party

 

 

Be filed with the appropriate state office

Be in writing

 

 

Include all of the above

 

 

Be signed by a notary public

 

 

Question 6

0.27 / 0.27 pts

Consider the following facts:  Ed, a partner in Farm Equipment Sales, applies for a loan with AgBank allegedly on Farm Equipment’s behalf but without the authorization of the other partners.  The bank knows that Ed is not authorized to take out the loan. Liability in the event of default will be imposed on:

 

No one

 

 

Ed

 

 

Farm Equipment Sales

Ag Bank

 

 

The other partners

 

 

Question 7

0.27 / 0.27 pts

A corporation is a creature of statute.

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

Question 8

0.27 / 0.27 pts

Consider the following facts:  Sierra is a holder of preferred stock in Rio Grande Irrigation, Inc.  Sierra has priority over holders of Rio common stock as to:

 

Upward changes in the market price of shares

Payment of dividends

 

 

All of the above

 

 

Nothing

 

 

The date on which Rio Grande must repurchase shares

 

 

Question 9

0.28 / 0.28 pts

Consider the following facts:  Blair and Chanel are holders of common stock in Discount Retail Stores, Inc.  Like other holders of common stock, they have a residual position in the overall financial structure of Discount Retail, because they:

 

All of the above

 

 

Reside in the state of the firm’s incorporation

Are guaranteed to receive more than the amount of their investment

 

 

Have priority in the firm’s assets if it becomes insolvent

 

 

Are last in line to receive a return on their investment

 

 

IncorrectQuestion 10

0 / 0.28 pts

From your review of the Required Resources in Module 5, which of the following were reasons given for Spotify to choose a direct listing rather than an IPO?

1. Spotify wanted to offer greater liquidity for its existing shareholders, without raising capital itself and without the restrictions imposed by standard lock-up agreements
2. Spotify wanted to provide unfettered access to all buyers and sellers of its shares, allowing Spotify’s existing shareholders the ability to sell their shares immediately after listing at market prices
3. Spotify’s lawyers informed the company that an IPO was impossible under its current ownership structure
4. Spotify believed it was constrained by the requirements of agency/principal law to utilize a direct listing
5. Spotify wanted to conduct its listing process with maximum transparency and enable market-driven price discovery

 

Items 1, 2, and 3

Items 1, 2, and 5

 

 

Items 1, 3, and 4

 

 

Items 2, 4, and 5

 

 

Items 3, 4, and 5

 

 

Question 11

0.28 / 0.28 pts

In his foundational 1970 article, “The Social Responsibility is to Increase its Profits,” Milton Friedman assumes without critique the application of a principal/agent relationship between corporate shareholders and management.

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

 

 

 

 

You correctly answered 4 of 5 quiz questions.

Question 1

Question	A general requirement for the informed consent form is that it may not include any exculpatory language. Exculpatory language is that which waives or appears to waive any of the subject’s legal rights or releases or appears to release those conducting the research from liability for negligence. Which of the following statements in a consent form is an example of exculpatory language?
Your Answer	Your participation in this research is voluntary. If you choose not to participate, or change your mind later, your decision will not affect your relationship with your doctor or your right to health care or other services that you may be eligible for.
Correct Answer	I waive any possibility of compensation for injuries that I may receive as a result of participation in this research.
Comment	Exculpatory language is written content in the consent document through which the subject is made to waive or appear to waive any of the subject’s legal rights, or releases or appears to release the investigator, the sponsor, the institution, or its agents from liability for negligence. Such language is specifically prohibited.

Question 2

Question	The purpose of informed consent is:
Your Answer	To provide a potential subject with appropriate information in an appropriate manner and allow that person to make an informed decision about participation in research.
Result	Correct
Comment	The purpose of the Informed Consent process is to ensure human research subjects are provided all of the information necessary to make informed choices about participating in research.

Question 3

Question	A 46-year-old man is currently enrolled in a Phase 2 study of a drug for severe diabetic neuropathy. While the study is on-going, a new drug becomes commercially available that may have equal or greater benefit to the subject. The investigator should do which of the following?
Your Answer	Give the subject comprehensive information about the new drug, including its side effects. Discuss the pros and cons of both the investigational drug and the commercially available drug and then allow the subject to decide whether to withdraw from the research to take the new drug.
Result	Correct
Comment	Phase 2 clinical trials involve volunteers who have the disease or condition to be treated. These trials help physicians and researchers begin to learn more about the safety of the new drug treatment and how well the drug treats the targeted disease or condition. Several different doses of the drug may be tested to see which dose has the desired effects. Subjects are monitored for side effects and for any improvement in their illness, symptoms, or both. Informed consent is not a one-time procedure but a continuing and ongoing process. 45 CFR 116(b) and 21 CFR 50.25(b) require that the Informed Consent document include a statement indicating that if significant new findings are developed during research which may relate to the subject’s willingness to continue, they will be explained to the subject. The Informed Consent document must also describe the process whereby subjects will be notified of significant new findings.

Question 4

Question

An elderly gentleman, whose wife is his legally authorized representative (LAR) since his strokes several years ago, was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. He is eligible for a clinical trial using a new investigational drug that aims to treat lung cancer. He is able to express interest, shows a basic understanding of the nature of the trial, and gives his assent to participation. The subject’s wife is out of town on a business trip. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take for the investigator?

Your Answer

Send a copy of the informed consent via facsimile to the subject’s wife. After she has had the opportunity to speak to the investigator, she can sign the informed consent and fax it back.

Result

Correct

Comment

The IRB will not provide a waiver of consent under these circumstances and the man should not be excluded from the study simply because his legally authorized representative is temporarily unavailable to sign in person. Verbal approval does not satisfy the FDA requirement at 21 CFR 56.109(c) of signed informed consent document. When obtaining consent from a legally authorized representative (LAR) who is not able to provide signed consent in person, it is acceptable to send the informed consent document to the LAR by facsimile and conduct the consent interview by telephone when the LAR can read the consent as it is discussed as noted in the FDA’s FAQs. If the LAR agrees, he/she can sign the consent and return the signed document to the clinical investigator by facsimile.

Question 5

Question	An investigator is confronted with a life-threatening situation that necessitates using a test article in a human subject who is unable to provide informed consent and there is no time to obtain consent from the individual’s LAR and no alternative method or recognized therapy is available. Under the FDA regulations for using test articles, which of the following describes the best course of action for the investigator:
Your Answer	The investigator and an independent physician agree that the situation necessitates the use of the test article. An exception or waiver for informed consent can be made under these circumstances. The IRB will be notified later.
Result	Correct
Comment	The life- threatening situation requires a timely decision so that the test article can be ethically used. It would be unethical to withhold emergency treatment until a research protocol is submitted and approved by the IRB. Not using the test article in a situation where it might save a life is also unethical. The Federal regulations (21 CFR 50.24) provide the option of using the test article in a life-threatening condition involving an individual subject where the following requirements for an exception from informed consent are met. 1. The investigator, with the concurrence of another physician, believes the situation necessitates the use of a test article (i.e., an investigational drug, device, or biologic). 2. The subject and/or legally authorized representative is unable to communicate consent 3. There is insufficient time to obtain consent. And 4. No alternative exists that will provide an equal or better chance of saving the subject’s life.

 

• Due

 

• Points2

 

• Questions30

 

• Time LimitNone

Instructions

This is a 30-question knowledge checkpoint  from Chapters 11, 12, & 13. 

Attempt History

	Attempt	Time	Score
LATEST	Attempt 1

Score for this quiz:

Submitted

This attempt took

 

Question 1

0.07 / 0.07 pts

The freight cost per mile has been generally increasing through the last decade.

Correct!

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

Question 2

0 / 0.07 pts

Logistics provides place and form utility.

You Answered

 

True

 

Correct Answer

 

False

 

 

Question 3

0.07 / 0.07 pts

Which of the following is NOT part of the logistics function?

 

Transportation of goods

 

 

Storage of goods

 

Correct!

 

Customer selection

 

 

Managing customer returns

 

 

Question 4

0.07 / 0.07 pts

In which of the following areas does logistics NOT contribute a direct competitive advantage?

 

Cost

 

 

Product access

 

Correct!

 

Product design

 

 

Sustainability

 

 

Question 5

0.07 / 0.07 pts

Trading speed of delivery with saving fuel is known as a

Correct!

 

cost-to-cost trade-off.

 

 

modal trade-off.

 

 

cost-to-service trade-off.

 

 

none of the above.

 

 

Question 6

0.07 / 0.07 pts

A firm provides a directive to all their truck drivers to not exceed a speed of 60 miles per hour (mph), even if a higher speed is permitted by law. Although this would probably mean that delivery commitments are missed, it also results in an optimal use of fuel. This is an example of a

Correct!

 

cost-to-cost trade-off.

 

 

modal trade-off.

 

 

cost-to-service trade-off.

 

 

none of the above.

 

 

Question 7

0.07 / 0.07 pts

As the minimum required order quantity increases without any change in the procurement price, landed costs will

Correct!

 

increase.

 

 

decrease.

 

 

remain constant.

 

 

none of the above.

 

 

Question 8

0.07 / 0.07 pts

At present, a firm has 75,000 units of safety stock located in 25 facilities. They are considering reducing the number of warehouses and consolidating to 16 facilities. What will be the new safety stock inventory as a result?

 

45,000 units

 

Correct!

 

60,000 units

 

 

75,000 units

 

 

100,000 units

 

 

Question 9

0 / 0.07 pts

At present, a firm has 75,000 units of safety stock located in 25 facilities. They are considering reducing the number of warehouses and consolidating to 16 facilities. What will be the new amount of safety stock inventory if each unit in inventory is valued at $2?

 

$45,000

 

You Answered

 

$60,000

 

 

$75,000

 

Correct Answer

 

$120,000 units

 

 

Question 10

0 / 0.07 pts

A Frito-Lay’s distributor receives a large shipment of product from a centralized production facility and the product is then sorted and loaded on a number of delivery vans for delivery to several stores, thus reducing transportation costs through economical shipping. Such a technique is known as

You Answered

 

consolidation warehousing.

 

Correct Answer

 

cross docking.

 

 

break bulk facilities.

 

 

hub and spoke system.

 

 

Question 11

0.07 / 0.07 pts

Developing the project charter is a key activity during which phase of a project?

Correct!

 

Initiation

 

 

Planning

 

 

Executing

 

 

Monitoring and controlling

 

 

Question 12

0.07 / 0.07 pts

The standard deviation of the critical path is equal to the sum of the standard deviations of all of the tasks on the critical path.

 

True

 

Correct!

 

False

 

 

Question 13

0.07 / 0.07 pts

As per Hersey and Blanchard’s Situation Leadership Model, the manager’s role of participating is categorized as

 

Low Task Behavior and Low Relationship Behavior.

 

Correct!

 

Low Task Behavior and High Relationship Behavior.

 

 

High Task Behavior and High Relationship Behavior.

 

 

High Task Behavior and Low Relationship Behavior.

 

 

Question 14

0.07 / 0.07 pts

As per Hersey and Blanchard’s Situation Leadership Model, the manager’s role of telling is categorized as

 

Low Task Behavior and Low Relationship Behavior.

 

 

Low Task Behavior and High Relationship Behavior.

 

 

High Task Behavior and High Relationship Behavior.

 

Correct!

 

High Task Behavior and Low Relationship Behavior.

 

 

Question 15

0.07 / 0.07 pts

As per Hersey and Blanchard’s Situation Leadership Model, which role of a manager can be described as Low Task Behavior and Low Relationship Behavior?

Correct!

 

Delegating

 

 

Participating

 

 

Selling

 

 

Telling

 

 

Question 16

0.07 / 0.07 pts

As per Belbin, a person whose strengths are to be disciplined, reliable, conservative and efficient is ideal for the project team role of

 

shaper.

 

Correct!

 

implementer.

 

 

coordinator.

 

 

resource investigator.

 

 

Question 17

0.07 / 0.07 pts

As per Belbin, a person whose strengths are maturity, confidence, someone who clarifies goals, promotes decision making and delegates well is ideal for the project team role of

 

shaper.

 

 

implementer.

 

Correct!

 

coordinator.

 

 

resource investigator.

 

 

Question 18

0.07 / 0.07 pts

As per Belbin, a person who has the strengths of being an extrovert, enthusiastic, communicative and someone who explores opportunities and develops contacts is ideal for the project team role of

 

shaper.

 

 

implementer.

 

 

coordinator.

 

Correct!

 

resource investigator.

 

 

Question 19

0.07 / 0.07 pts

The project team stage of development when the team members get to know each other, however, agreements have not yet been made to facilitate smooth interaction between team members, is

 

forming.

 

Correct!

 

storming.

 

 

norming.

 

 

performing.

 

 

Question 20

0.07 / 0.07 pts

The project team stage of development when the team becomes a cohesive unit and interdependence, trust, and cooperation develops between team members is

 

forming.

 

 

storming.

 

Correct!

 

norming.

 

 

performing.

 

 

Question 21

0.06 / 0.06 pts

The efficiency with which a product achieves its intended purpose is known as the “performance” dimension of quality.

Correct!

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

Question 22

0.06 / 0.06 pts

According to Joseph Juran, it is the systems that management puts into place that are primarily responsible for poor quality, not employees.

 

True

 

Correct!

 

False

 

 

Question 23

0.06 / 0.06 pts

The quality expert who described quality management as a trilogy that consists of quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement is

 

1. Edwards Deming.

 

Correct!

 

Joseph Juran.

 

 

Philip Crosby.

 

 

Kaoru Ishikawa.

 

 

Question 24

0.06 / 0.06 pts

The plan, do, check, act (PDCA) process for quality improvement was espoused by

Correct!

 

1. Edwards Deming.

 

 

Joseph Juran.

 

 

Philip Crosby.

 

 

Kaoru Ishikawa

 

 

Question 25

0.06 / 0.06 pts

In which phase of the PDCA cycle do managers perform trial experiments to test their improvements?

 

Plan

 

Correct!

 

Do

 

 

Check

 

 

Act

 

 

Question 26

0.06 / 0.06 pts

In which phase of the PDCA cycle do managers make the proposed quality improvements permanent?

 

Plan

 

 

Do

 

 

Check

 

Correct!

 

Act

 

 

Question 27

0.06 / 0.06 pts

The quality expert who proposed through his approach of 14 steps that quality, as a managed process, can be a source of improved financial performance for any firm is

 

1. Edwards Deming.

 

 

Joseph Juran.

 

Correct!

 

Philip Crosby.

 

 

Kaoru Ishikawa.

 

 

Question 28

0.06 / 0.06 pts

The ability of the service provider to perform his or her job dependably and accurately is known as the “assurance” dimension of service quality.

 

True

 

Correct!

 

False

 

 

Question 29

0.06 / 0.06 pts

Authors who write books with few errors can be said to excel in which dimension of service quality?

 

Tangibles

 

 

Responsiveness

 

Correct!

 

Reliability

 

 

Empathy

 

 

Question 30

0.06 / 0.06 pts

A control chart is a visual representation of the various states in a process.

 

True

 

Correct!

 

False

 

Personal injury suits and product
liability suits are only compensatory in nature.

		True
		False
View Feedback

 

Question 2

4 / 4 points

If a right is not explicitly stated in the Constitution, it may be implicitly found in

	penumbras of the Bill of Rights
	a Congressional statute
	the 14th Amendment
	the common law
Question 3		4 / 4 points

If the jury finds in favor of a Plaintiff in a civil trial, the Judge will enter the sentence.

		True
		False
View Feedback

 

Question 4

4 / 4 points

What was our country’s first constitution called?

	The Declaration of Independence
	The Articles of Confederation
	The “Federalist Paper”
	The Emancipation Proclamation
Question 5		4 / 4 points

“Civil procedure” refers to

	rules that govern the way in which all aspects of a civil lawsuit are to proceed
	the process of determining which civil rights a person is entitled to
	the need for processes that force lawyers to be civil to each other
	the elements of civil claims
Question 6		4 / 4 points

Child custody disputes are more contentious than divorce proceedings in modern society.

		True
		False
View Feedback

 

Question 7

4 / 4 points

Real property may be tangible or intangible.

		True
		False
View Feedback

 

Question 8

4 / 4 points

Which of the following is NOT a tort?

	Negligence
	Automobile Lemon Law
	Medical Malpractice
	Dog Bite Law
	None of the Above
View Feedback

 

Question 9

4 / 4 points

There are no formal requirements for becoming a federal judge in America.

		True
		False
View Feedback

 

Question 10

4 / 4 points

We celebrate Constitution Day on September 17th, because it is the anniversary of the day the framers signed the document.

		True
		False
Question 11			4 / 4 points

Police will generally not arrest a criminal where:

	the victim does not seek prosecution.
	the victim of the crime was also involved in some type of improper or questionable conduct.
	the victim of the crime is in a continuing relationship with the criminal.
	All of the Above.
View Feedback

 

Question 12

4 / 4 points

The 11th Amendment removed federal jurisdiction in cases where citizens of one state or of foreign countries attempt to sue another state.

		True
		False
Question 13			4 / 4 points

If you are a “habitual criminal” you will receive a mandatory life sentence.

		True
		False
View Feedback

 

Question 14

4 / 4 points

Laws for the United States are made by:

	The Supreme Court
	The Senate
	Congress
	The President
Question 15		4 / 4 points

The longest possible time a person can serve as President is:

	4 Years
	12 Years
	10 Years
	8 Years
Question 16		4 / 4 points

Thomas Jefferson signed the Constitution.

		True
		False
Question 17			4 / 4 points

If a crime lacks malice aforethought, it lacks actus reus.

		True
		False
View Feedback

 

Question 18

0 / 4 points

Which of the following Amendments to the U.S. Constitution protects the rights of life, liberty, and property of all United States citizens?

	The 11th Amendment
	The 12th Amendment
	The 13th Amendment
	The 14th Amendment
View Feedback

 

Question 19

4 / 4 points

The only Amendment in history enacted by Congress to repeal a previous Amendment was:

	The 13th Amendment
	The 21st Amendment
	The 18th Amendment
	The 24th Amendment
Question 20		4 / 4 points

A “final judgment” is one that allows an appeal before a case ends on the merits.

		True
		False
Question 21			20 / 20 points

Match the five (5) main categories of crime to their definition.

__4__ Political crime __5__ Consensual crime __1__ Conventional crime __3__ Organized crime __2__ Economic crime 1. is defined as those traditional, illegal behaviors that most people think of as crime. 2. is defined as illegal acts committed by an individual or a group of individuals to obtain a financial or professional advantage. Examples: identity theft or tax evasion 3. is defined as a group of professional criminals who work together as part of a powerful and secret organization. Examples: mafia or RICO cases 4. is defined as any crime that is committed in order to harm the state, state’s government, or political system of a state. Example: espionage 5. is defined as a public order crime that involves more than one participant, all of whom give their consent as willing participants in an activity that is unlawful. Examples: prostitution and gambling
Personal injury suits and product liability suits are only compensatory in nature. True False View Feedback   Question 2 4 / 4 points If a right is not explicitly stated in the Constitution, it may be implicitly found in penumbras of the Bill of Rights a Congressional statute the 14th Amendment the common law Question 3 4 / 4 points If the jury finds in favor of a Plaintiff in a civil trial, the Judge will enter the sentence. True False View Feedback   Question 4 4 / 4 points What was our country’s first constitution called? The Declaration of Independence The Articles of Confederation The “Federalist Paper” The Emancipation Proclamation Question 5 4 / 4 points “Civil procedure” refers to rules that govern the way in which all aspects of a civil lawsuit are to proceed the process of determining which civil rights a person is entitled to the need for processes that force lawyers to be civil to each other the elements of civil claims Question 6 4 / 4 points Child custody disputes are more contentious than divorce proceedings in modern society. True False View Feedback   Question 7 4 / 4 points Real property may be tangible or intangible. True False View Feedback   Question 8 4 / 4 points Which of the following is NOT a tort? Negligence Automobile Lemon Law Medical Malpractice Dog Bite Law None of the Above View Feedback   Question 9 4 / 4 points There are no formal requirements for becoming a federal judge in America. True False View Feedback   Question 10 4 / 4 points We celebrate Constitution Day on September 17th, because it is the anniversary of the day the framers signed the document. True False Question 11 4 / 4 points Police will generally not arrest a criminal where: the victim does not seek prosecution. the victim of the crime was also involved in some type of improper or questionable conduct. the victim of the crime is in a continuing relationship with the criminal. All of the Above. View Feedback   Question 12 4 / 4 points The 11th Amendment removed federal jurisdiction in cases where citizens of one state or of foreign countries attempt to sue another state. True False Question 13 4 / 4 points If you are a “habitual criminal” you will receive a mandatory life sentence. True False View Feedback   Question 14 4 / 4 points Laws for the United States are made by: The Supreme Court The Senate Congress The President Question 15 4 / 4 points The longest possible time a person can serve as President is: 4 Years 12 Years 10 Years 8 Years Question 16 4 / 4 points Thomas Jefferson signed the Constitution. True False Question 17 4 / 4 points If a crime lacks malice aforethought, it lacks actus reus. True False View Feedback   Question 18 0 / 4 points Which of the following Amendments to the U.S. Constitution protects the rights of life, liberty, and property of all United States citizens? The 11th Amendment The 12th Amendment The 13th Amendment The 14th Amendment View Feedback   Question 19 4 / 4 points The only Amendment in history enacted by Congress to repeal a previous Amendment was: The 13th Amendment The 21st Amendment The 18th Amendment The 24th Amendment Question 20 4 / 4 points A “final judgment” is one that allows an appeal before a case ends on the merits. True False Question 21 20 / 20 points Match the five (5) main categories of crime to their definition. __4__ Political crime __5__ Consensual crime __1__ Conventional crime __3__ Organized crime __2__ Economic crime 1. is defined as those traditional, illegal behaviors that most people think of as crime. 2. is defined as illegal acts committed by an individual or a group of individuals to obtain a financial or professional advantage. Examples: identity theft or tax evasion 3. is defined as a group of professional criminals who work together as part of a powerful and secret organization. Examples: mafia or RICO cases 4. is defined as any crime that is committed in order to harm the state, state’s government, or political system of a state. Example: espionage 5. is defined as a public order crime that involves more than one participant, all of whom give their consent as willing participants in an activity that is unlawful. Examples: prostitution and gambling

You correctly answered 5 of 5 quiz questions.

Question 1

Question	Issued in 1974, 45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status:
Your Answer	US Public Health Service Policy
Result	Correct
Comment	45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status the US Public Health Service policy of 1966 “Clinical research and investigation involving human beings”.

Question 2

Question	Which of the following brought increased public attention to the problems with the IRB system?
Your Answer	Death of Research Subject (Jesse Gelsinger)
Result	Correct
Comment	Although all of these are related to the problems with the IRB system, the death of a research subject (Jesse Gelsinger) was what received public attention.

Question 3

Question	Which of the following was the result of the Beecher article?
Your Answer	Realization that ethical abuses are not limited to the Nazi regime
Result	Correct
Comment	The primary result of the Beecher article was to expose ethical abuses occurring in research involving human subjects in the US, well after the revelations about research by the Nazi regime.

Question 4

Question	Informed consent is considered an application of which Belmont principle?
Your Answer	Respect for Persons
Result	Correct
Comment	Respect for persons involves respecting individual autonomy in the decision to participate in research. That respect is implemented through the process of informed consent.

Question 5

Question	The use of prisoners in research is a concern under the Belmont principle of Justice because:
Your Answer	Prisoners may not be used to conduct research that only benefits the larger society
Result	Correct
Comment	The Belmont Principle of Justice requires the equitable distribution of both the benefits and burdens of research. Prisoners should not bear the burden of participating in research that only benefits the larger society.